What is the greatest common factor of 42, 126, and 210 ? 2 6 14 21 42

Answer:

x< -4 =   ( -∞, -4)

Answer:

The height of the objects are the same after 2 seconds.

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to calculate at which time both objects have the same height we need to find the value of t that makes both equations equal. Therefore:

[tex]-t^2 + 3t = -t + 4\\t^2 - 3t - t + 4 = 0\\t^2 - 4t + 4 = 0\\t_{1,2} = \frac{-(-4) \pm \sqrt{(-4)^2 - 4*1*4}}{2*1} = \frac{4 \pm \sqrt{16 - 16}}{2}\\t_{1,2} = \frac{4}{2} = 2[/tex]

The height of the objects are the same after 2 seconds.

Answer:

[tex]-7x-3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](f-g)(x)[/tex] just means [tex]f(x)-g(x)[/tex].

So

[tex]-3x-5-(4x-2)\\-3x-5-4x+2\\-7x-3[/tex]

Answer:

C) The bars weigh 2.8oz on average.

Step-by-step explanation:

The fact that each sample's mean weight was within the 95% confidence interval suggests that the true mean weight of the chocolate bars is likely to be around 2.8 oz. The 95% confidence interval means that, in theory, if we repeated this sampling process many times, we would expect the true mean weight of the chocolate bars to fall within this interval 95% of the time. Since each sample's mean weight falls within this interval, it is reasonable to conclude that the company's claim that the bars weigh 2.8 oz on average is likely to be true.

Answer:

50 Swimmers

Step-by-step explanation:

If 4/10 swimmers are stingrays, that means that roughly 40% of the swimmers are stingrays. If there are 20 Stingrays and that is 40% of 100% swimmers it means that stingrays make up 2/5 of the swim team members. You can use this equation to cross multiply:

20/x = 40/100

20/x = 4/10

20/x = 2/5

x = 50.

This shows that there are 50 people on the team.

Answer:

The laterals area is  15 [tex]\pi[/tex] square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

recall that the formula for the lateral area of a cone of radius R, when the slant height (hs) is given is defined by the formula:

[tex]lateral\,\,area=\pi \,R\,h_s[/tex]

Therefore, in this case, we have:

[tex]lateral\,\,area=\pi \,R\,h_s\\lateral\,\,area=\pi \,3\,*\,5\\lateral\,\,area=15 \, \pi[/tex]

That is 15 [tex]\pi[/tex] square inches

Answer:

15 pi square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

I just did it

Brainliest pls

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

105 is not a perfect square

close ones 100 and 121

Answer:

11/4

Step-by-step explanation:

I did 11/12 divided by 1/3. I hope this is correct if not I'm very sorry.

Answer:

2 3/4 or 11/4

Answer:C 5000 feet

Step-by-step explanation:It’s slightly less then a mile.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all, you would want to convert all of the distances into the same units.

Let's convert the distances to miles.

5,000 inches = about 0.08 miles

0.5 miles = 0.5 miles

5,000 feet = about 0.9 miles

500 yards = about 0.3 miles

Now, we compare the values.

We can easily place 5,000 inches last, because when converted to miles it's 0.08.

0.08<0.3<0.5<0.9

5,000 inches<500 yards<0.5 miles<5,000 feet

Hence, the answer is C.

Answer:

11). m∠W = 70°

12). m∠M = 95°

13). m∠Q = 135°

14). m∠Q = 55°

15). m∠X = 110°

Step-by-step explanation:

11). m∠W + m∠X = 180° [Consecutive interior angles]

    (24x - 2) + (36x + 2) = 180°

     60x = 180°

     x = [tex]\frac{180}{60}[/tex]

     x = 3

     Therefore, m∠W = (24x - 2)°

     m∠W = (24×3 - 2)

               = 72 - 2

               = 70°

     Since opposite angles of a parallelogram are equal in measure.

     m∠Y = m∠W = 70°

12). m∠J + m∠K = 180° [Consecutive interior angles]

     (6x + 19) + (8x + 7) = 180°

     14x + 26 = 180

     14x = 180 - 26

     14x = 154

     x = [tex]\frac{154}{14}[/tex]

     x = 11

     m∠K = (8x + 7)

     m∠K = 8×11 + 7

     m∠K = 95°

     Since m∠M = m∠K

     Therefore, m∠M = 95°

13). m∠Q = m∠S [Opposite angles of a parallelogram]

      x + 135 = 2x + 135

      2x - x = 0

      x = 0

      Therefore, m∠Q = 135°

14). m∠Q = m∠S [Opposite angles of a parallelogram]

      14x - 1 = 13x + 3

      14x - 13x = 3 + 1

      x = 4

      m∠Q = (13x + 3)

                = 13×4 + 3

                = 52 + 3

      m∠Q = 55°

15). m∠Z = m∠X

     (19x - 4) = (17x + 8)

      19x - 17x = 12

      2x = 12

      x = 6

      m∠X = (17x + 8)°

      m∠X = 17×6 + 8

      m∠X = 110°

Answer:

i think its the option one, not sure

Answer:

32

Step-by-step explanation:

thats what i think, im 99.9% im correct

Answer:

GST = $0.32

PROFIT = $2.63

Step-by-step explanation:

GST = 7% of $4.54 = 0.32

Profit = 7.49 - ( 4.54 + 0.32)

= 7.49 - 4.86

= 2.63

Answer: 16/15

Step-by-step explanation:

2/5 + 2/3

(3/3)2/5 + (5/5)2/3

6/15 + 10/15 = 16/15

Answer:

1 1/15

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this, you must find a common denominator.

The common denominator that comes to my mind is 15.

2/5 = 2*3/5*3

2/5= 6/15

2/3= 2*5/3*5

2/3= 10/15

6/15 + 10/15 = 16/15

16/15= 1 1/15

Answer:

4 is the first term of the sequence

The second term would be 2x4+3 = 11

the third term would be 2×11+3 = 25

the forth term would be 2×25+3 = 53

Your sequence is 4,11,25,53

Answer:

f(x) = (1/2)*x + 6

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the following equation:

y - 8 = (1/2)*(x - 4)

Applying distributive property:

y - 8 = (1/2)*x - (1/2)*4

y - 8 = (1/2)*x - 2

Isolating y:

y = (1/2)*x - 2 + 8

y = (1/2)*x + 6

When we talk about functions, y and f(x) refers to the same. So, we can rewrite the last equations as:

f(x) = (1/2)*x + 6

Answer:15

Step-by-step explanation:

If each person gets 3 packets and there are 5 people you take 5*3 and get 15

Answer:

2*(4+6)

Step-by-step explanation:

2 multiplied by the sum of 4 and 6 is 2 times 10, which equal 20. Hope this helps :)

Answer:

2x(4+6)

The factors of 20 are 1,20||| 2,10 |||4,5||||

We need to somehow get both of those numbers

We have 4 but there is no way to get 5 so only 1,20 and 2,10 are left

We have 2 and we can add 4 + 6 = 10 and 10 x 2 = 20 so that's our answer

Hope this heps

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution is Option D.

The probability of at least two coins landing on heads is given by the equation P = 11/16

What is Probability?

The probability that an event will occur is measured by the ratio of favorable examples to the total number of situations possible

The value of probability lies between 0 and 1

Given data ,

Let the probability of at least two coins landing on heads be P

Now , the equation will be

Let the coin landing on its head be represented as = H

Let the coin landing on its tail be represented as = T

The possible outcomes of flipping a coin be represented by set A

Set A = {  HHHH , HHHT , HHTH , HHTT , HTHH , HTHT , HTTH , HTTT , THHH , THHT , THTH , THTT , TTHH , TTHT , TTTH , TTTT }

So ,

The total number of outcomes = 16 outcomes

The number of outcomes where at least 2 coins land on their heads is given by set B

Set B = { HHHH , HHHT , HHTH , HHTT , HTHH , HTHT , HTTH , THHH , THHT , THTH , TTHH }

The number of outcomes of set B = 11

So , the probability of at least two coins landing on heads be P = number of outcomes of set B / total number of outcomes

Substituting the values in the equation , we get

Probability of at least two coins landing on heads be P = 11/16

Therefore , the value of P is 11/16

Hence , the probability is 11/16

To learn more about probability click :

https://brainly.com/question/17089724

#SPJ5

Answer: 2cm

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question, we are informed that a microscope dilates the image of an organism 4 times its original dimensions and that the radius of a circular organism has seen by a microscope is 8 cm.

Since the microscope makes the objects 4 times bigger, then the original radius will be:

= 8cm/4

= 2cm

The radius of the actual organism is 2cm.

Answer:

32cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

The hypotenuse of a triangle is always twice the length of the shorter side in a 30 60 90 triangle. So if the hypotenuse is 4 the shortest side must be 2. Meaning the sum will be 6. The medium side is the shortest side times the square root of 3. So we have 2[tex]\sqrt{3}[/tex]. Our final equation is 6+ 2[tex]\sqrt{3}[/tex].

Answer:

$75 for the sled. (I don't understand "more than the times the cost of the sled")

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't understand "more than the times the cost of the sled" but if you were trying to figure out the cost of the sled, then it would be:

197-122=

75

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that measure of all right angles = 90 degrees

m<TPS = 45 degrees

m<QPV = 45 degrees

Answer:

Father: 23 years

Mom: 24 years

Answer:

  58.9 ft²

Step-by-step explanation:

The horse is constrained to 3/4 of a circle that has a 5 ft radius. Then the area is ...

  A = (3/4)πr²

  A = (3/4)π(5 ft)² = 75π/4 ft²

  A ≈ 58.9 ft²

The horse has a maximum grazing area of 58.9 ft².

_____

In the real world, a 5 ft rope is awfully short. The grazing area would depend on how high on the barn it is tied, and where on the horse it is tied.

Answer:

-0.3125

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract 3.5 from both sides

4t = -1.25

Divide both sides by 4

t =. -0.3125

Answer:

1.3335

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

ok I will help

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

ok

Step-by-step explanation: