View Policies Current Attempt in Progress Sandhill Corp. produces electric scooters. For each scooter produced, direct materials are $62, direct labor is $58, variable manufacturing overhead is $54, fixed manufacturing overhead is $70, variable selling and administrative expenses are $31, and fixed selling and administrative expenses are $45. Compute the target selling price assuming a 40% markup on total unit cost. Target selling price $ Save for Later Attempts: 0 of 1 used

Answers

Answer 1

The target selling price of the electric scooters produced by Sandhill Corp. assuming a 40% markup on total unit cost is $448.

The solution to the problem is given as follows;

To determine the target selling price, calculate the total cost first as;

Cost is the sum of Direct materials, Direct labor, Variable manufacturing overhead, Fixed manufacturing overhead, Variable selling and administrative expenses, Fixed selling and administrative expenses.

Cost = $62 + $58 + $54 + $70 + $31 + $45Cost = $320

Then, compute the markup on total unit cost as;

Markup on total unit cost = 40% * $320

Markup on total unit cost = $128

Target selling price = Cost + Markup on total unit cost

Target selling price = $320 + $128

Target selling price = $448

Therefore, the target selling price of the electric scooters produced by Sandhill Corp. assuming a 40% markup on total unit cost is $448.

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Related Questions

Please carefullt describe the operation of Credit Default
Swaps

Answers

Credit Default Swaps provide a means for investors and institutions to manage and transfer credit risk associated with debt obligations, enhancing the efficiency and liquidity of the financial markets.

Credit Default Swaps (CDS) are financial derivatives that provide protection against the risk of default on a specific debt obligation, such as a corporate bond or loan. They operate as a form of insurance where the buyer of the CDS pays periodic premiums to the seller in exchange for a guarantee of compensation in the event of a default.

The operation of a Credit Default Swap involves three main parties: the buyer (also known as the protection buyer), the seller (also known as the protection seller), and the reference entity. The reference entity is the entity whose debt obligation is being protected by the CDS. It could be a company, a government entity, or any other entity with debt obligations.

Here's how a Credit Default Swap typically works:

The buyer of the CDS pays regular premiums to the seller over the term of the contract. The premium amount is determined based on various factors, including the creditworthiness of the reference entity and the maturity of the CDS.

In return for the premium payments, the seller agrees to compensate the buyer in the event of a default by the reference entity. If the reference entity defaults on its debt obligations, the buyer can trigger the CDS and request payment from the seller.

Upon the occurrence of a credit event, such as a default, bankruptcy, or restructuring of the reference entity's debt, the buyer notifies the seller, and a settlement process is initiated.

The settlement amount is typically based on the difference between the face value of the reference entity's debt obligation and the recovery value. The recovery value represents the amount recovered by the buyer from the defaulted debt.

The seller pays the buyer the settlement amount, which helps the buyer mitigate the losses resulting from the default.

It's important to note that Credit Default Swaps can be used for hedging purposes to protect against credit risk or for speculative purposes to bet on the creditworthiness of a particular entity. They are traded over-the-counter (OTC) and are subject to counterparty risk, as the buyer is dependent on the seller's ability to fulfill the obligations.

Overall, Credit Default Swaps provide a means for investors and institutions to manage and transfer credit risk associated with debt obligations, enhancing the efficiency and liquidity of the financial markets.

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on January 1, 2010. Cyber Co. sold a machine with a carrying amount of $360,000 in exchange for a $400,000noninterest-bearing note due December 31, 2012. There was no established exchange price for the machine. Therate of interest applicable for a note of this type at January 1, 2010, was 10%. The present value of $1 at 10% forthree periods is 0.75.In Cyber’s 2010 income statement for the year ended December 31, 2010. What amount should be reported asinterest income?

a. $40,000
b. $36,000
c. $30,000
d. $26,000

Answers

The amount which should be reported as interest income is $100.000

So, the answer is E.

The rate of interest applicable for a note of this type at January 1, 2010, was 10%. The present value of $1 at 10% for three periods is 0.75.

We have to calculate the amount to be reported as interest income in Cyber's 2010 income statement for the year ended December 31, 2010.

Calculation of Interest income:

Present Value (PV) of note at January 1, 2010= Present Value of $1 at 10% for three periods × Amount of note= 0.75 × $400,000= $300,000

The interest income earned on this note will be the difference between the face value of the note and its present value.

Interest income earned in 2010= Face value of note – Present value of note= $400,000 - $300,000= $100,000

Therefore, $100,000 should be reported as interest income in Cyber's 2010 income statement for the year ended December 31, 2010.

Hence, the correct option is (e) $100,000.

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Investors forecast that Pires Corporation will pay a $2 per year cash dividend at the end of each of the next five years and expect the stock price to be $60 five years from now. If the investors require a 16% rate of return, at what price should each share be selling for today? O $36.16. O $26.55. O $35.12 O $60,00

Answers

The correct option is O $26.55.The calculation of the stock price today of the Pires Corporation using the dividend discount model can be done as follows:

In this case, the perpetual growth rate (g) is zero. Also, the dividend payment is regular, which makes the Gordon growth model invalid, so use the dividend discount model; that is,

P0 = (D1/(1+r)) + (D2/(1+r)^2) + (D3/(1+r)^3) + (D4/(1+r)^4) + (D5/(1+r)^5) + (P5/(1+r)^5

where dividend payment per share per year (D) is $2, the expected stock price after five years (P5) is $60, the investors' required rate of return (r) is 16%.

PV = Present value (price of the share today)

n = Number of years (5 in this case)

Plugging in the given values:

C1 = $2

C2 = $2

C3 = $2

C4 = $2

C5 = $2

P5 = $60

r = 16% or 0.16

n = 5

Substituting these values in the formula:

P0 = ($2/(1+0.16)) + ($2/(1+0.16)^2) + ($2/(1+0.16)^3) + ($2/(1+0.16)^4) + ($2/(1+0.16)^5) + ($60/(1+0.16)^5)

P0 =$26.55

Therefore, each share should be selling for approximately $26.55 today.

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hello world inc has a debt ratio of 0.65, non-current liabilities of $100000, current liabilities of 27,752 and non current assets of $150,000. compute the total current asset of hello ok

Answers

The total current assets of Hello World Inc. is $278,571.43.

To compute the total current assets of Hello World Inc., we need to use the debt ratio to determine the equity ratio first. The equity ratio can be calculated by subtracting the debt ratio from 1.

Equity Ratio = 1 - Debt Ratio

Equity Ratio = 1 - 0.65

Equity Ratio = 0.35

Next, we can calculate the total equity by multiplying the equity ratio by the total assets.

Total Equity = Equity Ratio * Total Assets

Given that non-current assets are $150,000, we can use this information to find the total assets.

Total Assets = Non-current Assets + Current Assets

We can rearrange this equation to solve for the current assets.

Current Assets = Total Assets - Non-current Assets

Now, let's calculate the total assets and current assets using the given information.

Total Assets = Non-current Assets / (1 - Debt Ratio)

Total Assets = $150,000 / (1 - 0.65)

Total Assets = $150,000 / 0.35

Total Assets = $428,571.43

Current Assets = Total Assets - Non-current Assets

Current Assets = $428,571.43 - $150,000

Current Assets = $278,571.43

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Accounts from the adjusted trial balance at September 30, 2021, are listed in alphabetical order below for Sheffield Corp Accounts payable $4,460 Income tax expense $650
Accounts receivable 7,600 Income tax payable 200 Accumulated depreciation-equipment 760 Interest expense 100 Bank loan payable 7,800 Interest payable 100 Cash 3,250 Rent expense 1,500 Common shares 7,000 Retained earnings 2,370 Deferred revenue 570 Salaries expense 14,520 Depreciation expense 760 Salaries payable 820 Dividends declared 700 Supplies 1,200
Equipment 15,040 Supplies expense 485 Fees earned 22,485 Utilities expense 760

Answers

The adjusted trial balance of Sheffield Corp as of September 30, 2021, includes the following accounts:

Accounts payable: $4,460Accounts receivable: $7,600Accumulated depreciation-equipment: $760Bank loan payable: $7,800Cash: $3,250Common shares: $7,000Deferred revenue: $570Depreciation expense: $760Dividends declared: $700Equipment: $15,040Fees earned: $22,485Income tax expense: $650Income tax payable: $200Interest expense: $100Interest payable: $100Rent expense: $1,500Retained earnings: $2,370Salaries expense: $14,520Salaries payable: $820Supplies: $1,200Supplies expense: $485Utilities expense: $760

The adjusted trial balance provides a summary of all the accounts and their balances after adjusting entries have been made. It includes both balance sheet accounts (e.g., assets, liabilities, equity) and income statement accounts (e.g., revenues, expenses). The accounts and their respective balances listed above reflect the financial position and performance of Sheffield Corp as of September 30, 2021. These balances will be used in preparing the financial statements for the period, such as the income statement, statement of retained earnings, and balance sheet.

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All of the following cause a shift in the demand curve except:

a) prices of related goods

b) technology

c) income

d) expectations

Answers

B) technology is the correct answer, as changes in technology generally affect supply rather than demand and would be associated with shifts in the supply curve.

b) technology.

the prices of related goods, income, and expectations are factors that can cause a shift in the demand curve, while technology is not directly related to shifts in the demand curve.

a) prices of related goods: when the prices of substitute goods or complementary goods change, it can impact the demand for a particular good. if the price of a substitute good increases, consumers may switch to the original good, causing an increase in demand. conversely, if the price of a complementary good increases, it may decrease the demand for the original good.

c) income: changes in income levels can affect consumer purchasing power and their ability to afford goods and services. when income increases, the demand for normal goods tends to increase, leading to a rightward shift in the demand curve. on the other hand, for inferior goods, an increase in income may lead to a decrease in demand and a leftward shift in the demand curve.

d) expectations: expectations about future changes in prices, income, or other relevant factors can influence consumer behavior. if consumers anticipate that prices will increase in the future, they may increase their current demand, causing a rightward shift in the demand curve. conversely, if consumers expect prices to decrease in the future, they may decrease their current demand, leading to a leftward shift in the demand curve.

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Linton Ltd. purchased 70 Horner AG 9%, 10-year, €1,000 bonds
on January 1, 2022, for €70,000. The bonds pay interest annually on
January 1. The market value of the bonds was € 70,525 at the end

Answers

To record the transactions described above, including closing entries, the following journal entries need to be made:

How to write the Journal entry

1. January 1, 2022: Purchase of 70 Horner AG bonds

  Bonds Payable    70,000

  Cash             70,000

  (To record the purchase of 70 Horner AG bonds for €70,000)

2. December 31, 2022: Adjusting entry for bond valuation

  Bond Valuation Adjustment    525

  Unrealized Gain on Investments    525

  (To adjust the bond valuation to market value of €70,525 at the end of 2022)

3. January 1, 2023: Receipt of interest

  Cash                      6,300

  Interest Revenue     6,300

  (To record the receipt of interest of 70 bonds at a rate of 9% annually)

4. January 1, 2023: Sale of all bonds

  Cash                             71,000

  Bonds Payable              70,000

  Gain on Sale of Bonds   1,000

  (To record the sale of all bonds for €71,000, realizing a gain of €1,000)

Closing entries:

5. December 31, 2022: Closing the Interest Revenue account

  Interest Revenue           X

  Income Summary            X

  (To close the Interest Revenue account by transferring the balance to the Income Summary account)

6. December 31, 2022: Closing the Unrealized Gain on Investments account

  Unrealized Gain on Investments     X

  Income Summary                                X

  (To close the Unrealized Gain on Investments account by transferring the balance to the Income Summary account)

7. December 31, 2022: Closing the Income Summary account

  Income Summary       X

  Retained Earnings    X

  (To close the Income Summary account by transferring the net income to Retained Earnings)

Note: The "X" represents the amount to be recorded, which depends on the balances in the respective accounts.

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question

Linton Ltd. purchased 70 Horner AG 9%, 10-year, €1,000 bonds on January 1, 2022, for €70,000. The bonds pay interest annually on January 1. The market value of the bonds was € 70,525 at the end of 2022. On January 1, 2023, after receipt of interest, Linton sold all of the bonds for €71,000.

Instructions

Prepare the journal entries to record the transactions described above, including closing entries. Assuming: Linton’s business model is to hold these bonds to collect contractual cash flows and sell.

After graduating from HCT Alia got a job as a Quality Control Manager for a bakery organization because of her excellent performance during the intervie w especially on her knowledge with various quality tools and concepts. During the interview she was informed the former manager left the company because he could not address the quality problems company is having.

Answers

Alia was able to secure a job as a Quality Control Manager for a bakery organization after graduating from HCT due to her outstanding performance during the interview and excellent knowledge in various quality tools and concepts.

She was informed during the interview that the former manager had left the company because he couldn't address the quality issues the company was facing.

Quality control is the process of ensuring that products and services meet a set of requirements, and quality control managers are responsible for implementing quality control procedures to ensure that their company's products meet customer expectations.

A bakery organization must produce high-quality products that meet food safety requirements, and a quality control manager's job is to ensure that this happens.

During Alia's interview, she was able to demonstrate her knowledge of various quality tools and concepts, which is likely what led to her being hired. These tools and concepts may include statistical process control, Six Sigma, lean manufacturing, total quality management, and others.

It was mentioned in the interview that the former manager had left the company because he was unable to address the quality problems the company was facing.

This suggests that quality issues were a significant problem for the company, and it was essential to find a new quality control manager who could address these issues effectively.

In summary, Alia's knowledge and skills in various quality tools and concepts were likely what helped her secure the job of Quality Control Manager for the bakery organization.

Her role is to ensure that the company produces high-quality products that meet customer expectations and food safety requirements.

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Digital learning that is synchronous Select one: a. involves the use of simulators that replicate the features of a work situation b. seeks to change the attitudes of trainees and develop communication skills. c. is used in group training to enhance interpersonal skills d. provides for decision making and the development of problem-solving skills. e. allows for real-time access

Answers

Digital learning that is synchronous e. allows for real-time access

What is digital learning?

Any sort of learning that is supported by technology or involves instructional strategies that effectively utilize technology is referred to as digital learning. It includes the use of a variety of techniques, such as blended learning and online education.

Learning that is aided by technology and that provides students some degree of control over time, place, path, and/or pace is referred to as digital learning.

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which of the following most accurately describes when investigators pursuing us public health service funding are required to disclose their significant financial interest to an institute errands

Answers

When investigators pursuing U.S. Public Health Service funding are required to disclose their significant financial interest to an institute, they must do so if their significant financial interest has a potential of presenting a conflict of interest with the research studies or projects they are conducting.

According to the Public Health Service (PHS) regulations on Responsibility of Applicants for Promoting Objectivity in Research for which PHS Funding is Sought, investigators must disclose any significant financial interest that has the potential of presenting a conflict of interest with their research studies or projects before submitting their proposals for funding. The financial interest may arise from a wide range of sources such as a consulting fee, a lecture fee, travel reimbursements, or a stock ownership, among others. The investigator may also have a financial interest in a spouse or a dependent child's company.The regulations require that all significant financial interests be disclosed to the institution for research and to any funding components of the PHS funding agency. Additionally, the institutions are required to establish a conflict-of-interest committee (COI) to manage, review, and approve the disclosure statements and the management plans developed to mitigate any potential conflicts of interests that may arise during the course of the research project.

U.S. Public Health Service (PHS) regulations require investigators to disclose their significant financial interest to an institute when seeking funding. The disclosure must be made if the significant financial interest has the potential of presenting a conflict of interest with the research studies or projects being conducted. The significant financial interest may arise from a variety of sources, including a consulting fee, lecture fee, travel reimbursement, or stock ownership, among others. Investigators may also have a financial interest in their spouse or dependent child's company. Institutions are required to establish a conflict-of-interest committee (COI) to manage, review, and approve the disclosure statements and management plans that have been developed to mitigate any potential conflicts of interest that may arise during the research project.

All significant financial interests must be disclosed to the institution for research and any funding components of the PHS funding agency. This regulation is aimed at ensuring transparency, objectivity, and scientific integrity in the research process. By disclosing their significant financial interests, investigators are demonstrating that they have nothing to hide and are committed to conducting high-quality research that is free of any conflicts of interest. This helps to maintain public trust in the research process and protects the welfare of human subjects involved in the research projects.

Investigators pursuing U.S. Public Health Service funding must disclose their significant financial interest to an institute when the financial interest has the potential of presenting a conflict of interest with their research studies or projects. The institution for research and the funding components of the PHS funding agency must be informed of all significant financial interests, and institutions must establish COIs to manage and review disclosure statements and management plans to mitigate potential conflicts of interest. This regulation aims to promote transparency, objectivity, and scientific integrity in the research process and protect the welfare of human subjects involved in research projects.

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Electrical goods Pty Ltd formed a partnership with Michael and John to operate a wholesale business selling electronics called " buy right". The partnership agreement provides that the partnership is as follows; electronic goods Pty Ltd 60%, Michael 20% and John 20%. The partnerships financial accountant provided you with the following profit and loss statement. Electrical goods Pty Ltd, Michael and John partnership Trading as buy rights Profit and loss for the year ending 30th of June 2021 Income Sales. 1,500,000 Government grant. 75,000(note 1) Total income. 1,575,000 Cost of goods sold Opening stock 320,000 Purchases. 500,000 Closing stock. 180.000 Total cost of goods sold. 640,000 Gross profit. 935,000 Expenses Employment wages. 150,000 Interest in partnership loan 60,000(note 2) Partner salaries for Michael and John. 400,000 Rent. 75,000 Electricity and water. 45,000 Movement in provisions. 55,000 (note 3) Total expenses. 785,000 Net profit. 150,000 Notes 1. The partnership received an apprenticeship rebate from the government to assist with the apprentices cost that the partnership currently employs 2. Electrical goods Pty Ltd lent the partnership $1,000,000, so the partnership would not have to borrow from the bank to finance the purchase of stock. The 60,000 interest related to this loan 3. The accountant has taken up the following movements in the provision accounts: doubtful debt 35,000, long service leave 10,000 and accrued sick leave 10,000. 4. The partnership made a loss of 125,000 in the June 2020 year Address the following and justify using legislation and case law where applicable A) calculate the partnerships taxable income B) calculate electrical goods Pty Ltd tax payable

Answers

A)  The calculated taxable income of the partnership is $1,500,000.

B)  Electrical Goods Pty Ltd's tax payable for the year ending June 30, 2021, is $270,000.

A) To calculate the partnership's taxable income, we need to start with the net profit of $150,000 and make adjustments for tax purposes. The adjustments are as follows:

Subtract any non-taxable income - in this case, the government grant of $75,000 is not taxable, so it should be subtracted from the total income:

Total income: $1,575,000

Non-taxable income: $75,000

Taxable income: $1,500,000

Add back any non-deductible expenses - there are no non-deductible expenses listed in the profit and loss statement.

Deduct any allowable deductions - the main allowable deduction is depreciation on assets used in the business. However, this information is not provided in the profit and loss statement. Therefore, we cannot make any deduction for depreciation here.

Therefore, the calculated taxable income of the partnership is $1,500,000.

B) To calculate Electrical Goods Pty Ltd's tax payable, we need to determine its share of the partnership's taxable income, which is 60%.

Tax payable = Taxable income x Tax rate

The current company tax rate in Australia is 30%, so we can calculate the tax payable for Electrical Goods Pty Ltd as follows:

Tax payable = $1,500,000 x 0.3 x 0.6

Tax payable = $270,000

Therefore, Electrical Goods Pty Ltd's tax payable for the year ending June 30, 2021, is $270,000.

It's important to note that this calculation is based on current taxation legislation and rates. If there were any changes to the legislation or rates after June 30, 2021, the tax payable may have been different. Additionally, if the partnership had any other sources of income or deductions, they would need to be taken into account when calculating the taxable income.

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SSS insurance company sent an important email to its employees to make them familiarized with the extent to which people try to control their desires and impulses
The most suitable title to this email refers to
O A. Power Distance Index
O B. Indulgent versus restrained
O C. Masculinity versus Femininity
O D. Individualism versus Collectivism

Answers

The most suitable title to this email that SSS insurance company sent to its employees to make them familiarized with the extent to which people try to control their desires and impulses refers to b. "Indulgent versus restrained."

The concept of Indulgent vs. restrained refers to the degree of control that individuals have over their needs and impulses. The difference between indulgent and restrained societies, as described in the Hofstede's Model, has to do with the control of people's behaviour.

SSS Insurance Company, also known as Social Security System, is a government-owned and controlled corporation in the Philippines. It provides social security protection to Filipino workers and their families against the economic impact of sickness, disability, maternity, retirement, and death.

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How is technology impacting sales training? What benefits
can sales managers realize by using e-learning methods?
please write 4-5 sentences

Answers

Technology is making significant changes in sales training, offering various benefits to sales managers and their teams. One of the most significant changes is the introduction of e-learning methods.

These methods are cost-effective, flexible, and offer a convenient way of learning to sales teams, irrespective of their location. They provide an opportunity to learn at one's pace and give access to vast information from various online resources. They also provide real-life scenarios and opportunities to develop practical skills and apply them in real-time situations. Sales managers can track the progress of their teams and customize training courses to suit their needs. They can also provide feedback and offer solutions to any challenges that the sales team may face in their sales process. In summary, e-learning methods offer an efficient and effective way of training sales teams, ensuring better performance and productivity.

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What happens to the market for Tesla stock if demand increases?
(A) The price falls.
(B) The price stays the same.
(C) The price rises.
(D) Seek theosis, and then all is good.
Which of the following groups does NOT stand to benefit from in
(A) The government.
(B) The wealthy.
(C) Those on fixed-salary contracts.
(D) People who hold lots of debt.

Answers

If demand for Tesla stock increases, the price is likely to rise. Therefore, the correct answer is (C) The price rises.

When there is an increase in demand for a stock, more investors are willing to buy it, leading to higher competition for the limited available shares. As a result, the price of the stock tends to increase as buyers are willing to pay more to secure their desired quantity.Regarding the second question, the group that does NOT stand to benefit from inflation is (C) Those on fixed-salary contracts. Inflation erodes the purchasing power of money over time, so individuals with fixed salaries will experience a decrease in their real income as the cost of goods and services rises. On the other hand, the government, the wealthy, and people who hold lots of debt can potentially benefit from inflation through various mechanisms like increased tax revenue, higher asset values, and reduced real debt burden.


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A company is considering locating to one of four locations, A, B, C, or D. Using the factor rating method, which location would you recommend?

Answers

The company locations factor rating method involves assigning ratings to each of the locations based on factors such as cost of land, labour, utilities, transportation, and taxes.

These ratings are then combined into an overall score for each location. The location with the highest overall score is the best choice. To use the factor rating method, the company would need to gather information on the costs of each factor in each location.

For example, the cost of land might be lower in Location A, but the cost of labour might be higher. The company would then assign a rating to each factor in each location based on the available information. The ratings could be on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 representing a low factor cost and 5 representing a high factor cost.

Once the ratings have been assigned, the company can combine them into an overall score for each location. The location with the highest overall score would be the best choice. For example, if the ratings for Location A are as follows: cost of land (4), cost of labour (3), cost of utilities (2), cost of transportation (3), and cost of taxes (4), the overall score for Location A would be (4+3+2+3+4) =16.

The company could then compare the overall scores of each location to determine which location is the best choice. If Location A has the highest overall score, it would be the recommended location. If Location B has the highest overall score, it would be the recommended location and so on.

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A warehouse fire destroyed $4.9 million worth of uninsured inventory. Choose the correct answer below. O A. Inventory would increase by $4.9 million, as would the book value of equity. OB. Inventory would increase by $4.9 million, and the book value of equity would decrease by the same amount. OC. Inventory would decrease by $4.9 million, and the book value of equity would be unchanged. O D. Inventory would decrease by $4.9 million, as would the book value of equity.

Answers

The correct option is D. Inventory would decrease by $4.9 million, as would the book value of equity.

What is the impact of the warehouse fire on the company's book value of equity and inventory? A warehouse fire that destroyed $4.9 million worth of uninsured inventory would decrease inventory by $4.9 million, and the book value of equity would be reduced by the same amount. A company's book value of equity is calculated by subtracting total liabilities from total assets. It reflects the accounting value of the company and can differ from its market value. Inventory is classified as a current asset and is included in the company's total assets. When inventory is lost, the company's total assets and book value of equity are reduced by the same amount. Warehouse fire that destroyed $4.9 million worth of uninsured inventory will reduce the company's total assets by $4.9 million. The warehouse fire has no effect on liabilities, so the company's book value of equity is reduced by the same amount. As a result, the company's book value of equity decreases by $4.9 million in response to the warehouse fire.

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9. F Co. produces $5,000,000 worth of kites during the year. It expects sales of $4,800,000 for the year, leaving $200,000 worth of kites to be stored in the warehouse for future sale. During the year

Answers

Based on the given information, F's planned investment is $800,000.

The formula for calculating net investment is

Net Investment = New Production Equipment - Change in Inventory

Given the information provided:

F Co. purchases new production machinery worth $1,000,000.A total of $5,000,000 worth of kites were made throughout the course of the year, $4,800,000 projected in sales and $200,000 worth of kites still in the warehouse.

Change in Inventory = Value of Kites Produced - Value of Kites Sold

Change in Inventory = $5,000,000 - $4,800,000 = $200,000

Net Investment = New Production Equipment - Change in Inventory

Planned Investment = $1,000,000 - $200,000

Planned Investment = $800,000

Therefore,  the F's planned investment is $800,000.

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The complete question is probably

F Co. produces $5,000,000 worth of kites during the year. It expects sales of $4,800,000 for the year, leaving $200,000 worth of kites to be stored in the warehouse for future sale. During the year, F Co. adds $1,000,000 in new production equipment. Find the F's planned investment.+

1. Neutral taxation is taxing different commodities at the same tax rate. (True or False)
2. Choosing optimal user fees for government produced services is similar to choosing optimal taxes. (True or False)

Answers

The given statement, "Neutral taxation is taxing different commodities at the same tax rate," is true because this approach aims to create a level playing field and treat all goods and services equally in terms of taxation.The given statement, "Choosing optimal user fees for government-produced services is similar to choosing optimal taxes," is true because both involve considerations of economic efficiency, equity, and revenue generation. The principles used to determine the appropriate level of taxation can also be applied to set user fees for government services to achieve similar objectives.

True: Neutral taxation refers to the practice of applying the same tax rate to different commodities. The idea behind neutral taxation is to treat all goods and services equally in terms of taxation, without favoring or discriminating against specific products or industries. This approach aims to create a level playing field and minimize distortions in resource allocation caused by differential tax treatment. By applying the same tax rate across the board, neutral taxation promotes fairness and economic efficiency.

True: Choosing optimal user fees for government-produced services shares similarities with choosing optimal taxes. Both involve considerations of economic efficiency, equity, and revenue generation. When determining user fees for government services, policymakers need to strike a balance between ensuring affordability and covering the costs of providing those services. Similarly, when selecting optimal taxes, policymakers consider the trade-offs between maximizing revenue and minimizing economic distortions. Both decisions require careful analysis of the potential impact on individuals, businesses, and the overall economy.

In summary, both statements are true. Neutral taxation promotes fairness by applying the same tax rate to different commodities, while the process of determining optimal user fees for government services shares similarities with choosing optimal taxes, as both involve considerations of efficiency, equity, and revenue generation.

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the quarterly operating statement for a firm gives the following information: number of pieces manufactured: 100 number of pieces sold: 100 total cost of goods sold: $800 average cost of single piece: $5 revenue (net sales): $1,000

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The quarterly operating statement of a company is one of the most significant documents that reflect the financial health of a company.

It is a financial statement that reports a firm's results of operations for a specific period. The statement contains details of a company's revenues, expenses, gains, and losses for a particular quarter. The quarterly operating statement for a firm gives the following information:number of pieces manufactured: 100number of pieces sold: 100total cost of goods sold: $800average cost of single piece: $5revenue (net sales): $1,000Cost of goods sold is the cost of the product that a company has sold during the period. In the given statement, the total cost of goods sold is $800, and the average cost of a single piece is $5. Therefore, we can calculate the number of pieces manufactured as follows:Total Cost of Goods Sold = Number of Pieces Sold * Cost per Piece 800 = 100 * Cost per Piece Cost per Piece = 800/100 Cost per Piece = $8So, the total cost of producing 100 pieces of product is $800, and the average cost per piece is $8. We can also calculate the gross profit as follows:Gross Profit = Revenue - Cost of Goods Sold Gross Profit = $1,000 - $800 Gross Profit = $200Therefore, the gross profit of the company for the given period is $200. The quarterly operating statement provides a detailed account of the company's financial performance, and it helps the management to make decisions about the company's future. In conclusion, the quarterly operating statement loaded by the content suggests that the company produced 100 pieces of products at an average cost of $8 per piece, sold all of them, and earned $1,000 of revenue. The gross profit for the period was $200.

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training need analysis takes place during which phase of the training process

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Training needs analysis takes place during the initial phase of the training process.

Training needs analysis (TNA) is a systematic process of identifying the gaps between the desired and current knowledge, skills, and abilities of employees within an organization. It involves assessing the training requirements of individuals or groups in order to determine the areas where training is necessary.

TNA is typically conducted at the beginning of the training process to ensure that the training programs are aligned with the specific needs of the organization and its employees. It helps in identifying the knowledge and skill gaps that exist and provides valuable insights into the areas where training interventions are required.

During the TNA phase, various methods such as surveys, interviews, observations, and assessments are used to collect data and analyze the current state of knowledge and skills within the organization. This data is then used to identify the training needs, set training objectives, and develop appropriate training programs.

The training needs analysis phase is a crucial step in the training process as it forms the foundation for designing and delivering effective training programs. By conducting a thorough analysis of the training needs, organizations can ensure that their training initiatives are targeted and relevant, leading to improved performance and productivity.

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When we order using the periodic inventory review policy
(R, S), we still need to know the inventory
level.
True
False

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When ordering using the periodic inventory review policy (R, S), it is true that we still need to know the inventory level.

The periodic inventory review policy (R, S) is a method used in inventory management to determine when and how much to order. In this policy, the inventory is reviewed periodically at specific intervals, typically based on a fixed time or predetermined review cycles. The parameters R and S represent the reorder point and order-up-to level, respectively.

To effectively implement the (R, S) policy, it is essential to have knowledge of the inventory level. The inventory level provides critical information about the current stock levels and whether it has reached the reorder point. By knowing the inventory level, the company can determine if an order needs to be placed to replenish the inventory up to the desired order-up-to level.

The inventory level serves as a trigger for initiating the ordering process. When the inventory level reaches or falls below the reorder point (R), it signals the need to place an order to maintain the desired level of inventory. Without knowing the inventory level, it would be challenging to determine when to order and how much to order, leading to potential stockouts or excess inventory.

Therefore, it is important to have accurate and up-to-date information about the inventory level when using the periodic inventory review policy (R, S) to ensure timely and appropriate replenishment of inventory.

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Which of the following is a correct statement? Multiple Choice The Payback Period method cannot be used for a quick assessment of a capital budgeting investment opportunity Net Present Value is the only capital budgeting tool that considers time value of money $50,000 depreciation expense creates a $50,000 cash reserve in the business The Simple (Unadjusted) Rate of Return focuses on operating income rather than cash flow

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Depreciation is an accounting concept that shows the decrease in the value of an asset over its useful life. It does not create cash reserve in the business.

Among the given statements, the correct statement is "The Simple (Unadjusted) Rate of Return focuses on operating income rather than cash flow." This is because the Simple (Unadjusted) Rate of Return is a financial analysis method that takes into consideration the operating income that a project generates in relation to the initial investment and not the cash flow, as mentioned in the given statement. In capital budgeting, the payback period method is a useful tool for quick evaluation, but it is not true that it cannot be used for a quick assessment of a capital budgeting investment opportunity. This method takes into consideration the period that is required to recoup the initial investment of the project. However, it does not consider the time value of money. On the other hand, the Net Present Value (NPV) method is the most widely accepted capital budgeting tool that considers the time value of money. It calculates the present value of future cash flows that will be generated by a project and then deducts the initial investment. The given statement that "$50,000 depreciation expense creates a $50,000 cash reserve in the business" is not correct. Depreciation is an accounting concept that shows the decrease in the value of an asset over its useful life. It does not create cash reserve in the business.

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Which of the following statements is true?
Select one alternative:
For a single-price monopoly, price is typically equal to marginal revenue (P = MR).
For a perfectly competitive producer, price is typically less than marginal revenue (P < MR).
For a single-price monopoly, price is typically greater than marginal revenue (P > MR).
For a perfectly competitive producer, price is typically greater than marginal revenue (P > MR).

Answers

The statement "For a single-price monopoly, price is typically greater than marginal revenue (P > MR)" is true.

In a single-price monopoly, a firm has market power and is the sole producer of a product with no close substitutes. Due to its market power, the monopoly firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve, meaning it must lower the price to sell more output.

Consequently, the marginal revenue (MR) curve lies below the demand curve. Since the firm is a price maker, it sets the price higher than the marginal revenue in order to maximize its profits. Therefore, in a single-price monopoly, the price is typically greater than marginal revenue (P > MR). The other statements are incorrect.

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at the end of the taxable year, Muharraq company disclosed $5,000,000 of Net Income. The accountant prepared the taxable report for the year and sent it to the HMRC. Upon receiving the report, the HMRC returned $ 20,000 which had been paid by the company for developing the company public garden. Additionally, the HMRC also returned $10,000 because the company specializes in recycling plastic products. The HMRC explained that the reason for the refund is the Tax Law Part 3 as clarified by the House of Representative and the Specialized Court.

Questions:

In your opinion, why did the HMRC return the taxation? (4 Points)
What type of taxes must be paid by the company? (3Points)
What kind of Legislation was used by the HMRC to justify returning the money? Justify your answer.

Answers

The HMRC returned the taxation because the expenses incurred for developing the company's public garden and specializing in recycling plastic products likely qualify for tax deductions or credits under Tax Law Part 3. This indicates that the government encourages and incentivizes activities related to environmental conservation and sustainability.

The types of taxes that must be paid by the company may include corporate income tax, which is calculated based on the disclosed net income. Additionally, the company may be subject to other taxes such as value-added tax (VAT) and payroll taxes, depending on the jurisdiction and specific circumstances.

The HMRC used Tax Law Part 3, as clarified by the House of Representatives and the Specialized Court, to justify returning the money. This legislation likely contains provisions that allow for tax deductions or credits related to expenses for developing public gardens and specializing in recycling plastic products. The government's intention is to promote environmental initiatives and reward companies engaged in such activities.

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From a consumer's perspective, all of the following are interactive elements of an IMC strategy EXCEPT


A. personal selling.
B. consumer contests.
C. mobile marketing.
D. public relations.
E. telemarketing.

Answers

From a consumer's perspective, all of the following are interactive elements of an IMC strategy EXCEPT personal selling. The correct answer is option (A).

Personal selling is not an interactive element of the IMC strategy because the objective of personal selling is to communicate directly with the potential buyer in order to influence their buying decisions. The rest of the options are interactive because they allow the consumer to actively engage with the brand or company in some way.  Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.


Consumer contests are interactive because they allow the consumer to participate in a competition and possibly win a prize. Mobile marketing is interactive because it involves reaching out to consumers through their mobile devices and using various forms of communication to engage with them. Public relations is interactive because it involves building relationships with consumers and engaging with them through various channels.

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Please read the following scenario from Chapter 14, page 564, "Just the Facts" and respond to the subsequent question below. No word limit is required, but please provide a meaningful and thoughtful opinion. If you would like more details, the case number is provided below. Also, please comment on at least one fellow student’s comment (points will be taken off if no comment is made).
In February 2014, shooting began for Midnight Rider, a film based on the lives of the Allman brothers. The film was never completed. As the film crew set up to shoot a scene on an active train trestle owned by CSX Transportation, a freight train barreled through, killing a 27-year old camera assistant and seriously injuring several other film crew members. The director and producers in charge of the film knew that the railroad tracks were in active use and that CSX had refused permission to film on the tracks. Film crew and cast members were not informed that CSX would not be on site and would not be controlling train traffic while they were filming on the tracks. Film Allman, L.L.C. v. Sec’y of Labor, 682 Fed. Appx. 860 (11th Cir. 2017); Michael Cieply. "Midnight Rider’ Director Pleads Guilty to Involuntary Manslaughter in Death on Set." New York Times (March 10, 2015), B3. Two-Part Question:
1. Did the film company violate the OSHA’s general duty clause? Why or why not?
2. Were the director and producers criminally responsible? Why or why not?

Answers

The film company likely violated the OSHA’s general duty clause and the director and producers may bear criminal responsibility for the incident.

The film company likely violated OSHA's general duty clause. The general duty clause of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) requires employers to provide a workplace free from recognized hazards that are likely to cause serious harm or death. In this case, the film crew was not informed that the train tracks were active and that permission to film on the tracks had been denied by CSX. By failing to inform the crew about the potential danger and not taking appropriate measures to ensure their safety, the film company breached its duty to provide a safe working environment. This failure to address the recognized hazard of oncoming trains likely constitutes a violation of OSHA's general duty clause.

The director and producers may bear criminal responsibility for the incident. Criminal liability would depend on the specific laws and regulations of the jurisdiction. However, if it can be established that the director and producers were aware of the dangers associated with filming on active train tracks and deliberately ignored or disregarded the risks, they could potentially be charged with crimes such as involuntary manslaughter or reckless endangerment. Their knowledge of the denial of permission from CSX and failure to inform the crew about the lack of control over train traffic would be factors considered in determining their criminal responsibility.

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Inventory management is key function in manufacturing companies. Proton Holdings Berhad (Proton), the Malaysian national automobile manufacturer, annually reports that inventory makes up around 15 percent of the company’s total assets value. In 2021, Proton sold 114,708 units of cars including 3,018 for export outside Malaysia. The annual production capacity of its two manufacturing plants is 350,000 units. The company also provides after sales service to its customers through its 147 service centres nationwide.
(i) Explain six (6) categories of inventory for Proton.
(ii) Discuss five (5) key reasons with relevant example for Proton to have a significant amount of inventory.
(b) Neutron Company sells a specialised part for the Malaysian automobile industry. Next year, the forecast for Neutron’s specialised part is 1,000 units. The selling price for the specialised part is RM2,500 per unit, while its cost is RM1,500 per unit. Set-up or ordering cost is RM10 per set-up or order, while holding cost is RM0.50 per unit per year.
(i) Calculate economic order quantify for the specialised parts.
(ii) Calculate the number of orders per year for the specialised parts.
(iii) Calculate the expected time between orders for the specialised parts, assuming the company has a 250-day working year.

Answers

The results for the given inventory for Proton for the economic order quantity (EOQ) is estimated for all cases.

(i) Categories of inventory for Proton:

There are six categories of inventory for Proton as mentioned below:

Raw Materials: Raw materials inventory includes all materials, such as sheet metal, steel tubes, and plastic molds, that are required to construct and assemble automobiles.

Work-in-Progress (WIP): Work-in-progress inventory includes partially assembled cars and components that are currently being used in the manufacturing process.

Finished Goods: Finished goods inventory includes automobiles that have been fully assembled and are ready for sale.

Packaging and Labels: Proton must keep a certain amount of packaging and labeling inventory on hand to prepare automobiles for transport and sale.

Maintenance, Repairs, and Operations (MRO): Proton also has MRO inventory, which includes machinery and tools that are used to maintain the production line and equipment.

Spare Parts: Spare parts inventory includes parts that are not used in the manufacturing process but are required to repair automobiles during after-sales service.

(ii) Reasons for a significant amount of inventory at ProtonHere are the five key reasons why Proton needs to have a significant amount of inventory:

Demand Fluctuations: The market demand for automobiles fluctuates throughout the year. To ensure they have enough cars to meet the demand, Proton needs to have a significant amount of inventory.

Supply Chain Delays: Supply chain issues, such as shipping and delivery delays, can cause a delay in the production process. To avoid production delays, Proton has to keep a considerable amount of inventory in stock.

Procurement Time: Procurement time for raw materials and other components can be lengthy. Proton needs to have a considerable amount of inventory to cover for these long lead times.

Quality Control: In automobile manufacturing, quality control is critical. Proton needs to have a considerable amount of inventory to inspect for quality issues, recall defective parts and repair or replace defective units.

Lower Costs: Ordering in bulk helps Proton to obtain a lower unit cost than ordering small quantities. Keeping an extensive inventory is a way to ensure that Proton can take advantage of this cost-saving method.

(b) Calculations for economic order quantity (EOQ), number of orders per year, and expected time between orders for Neutron Company's specialized part.

i. Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)

EOQ is calculated using the following formula:

EOQ = sqrt [(2DS) / H]where D = Annual Demand

S = Cost per setup or order

H = Holding cost per unit per year

Putting the given values in the formula,

EOQ = sqrt [(2 × 1,000 × RM10) / RM0.50]

EOQ = sqrt [20,000]

EOQ = 141.42

Therefore, the EOQ for the specialized parts is 141.42.

ii. Number of Orders Per Year

Number of Orders = Annual Demand / EOQ

Number of Orders = 1,000 / 141.42

Number of Orders = 7.07

Therefore, the number of orders per year is 7.07.

iii. Expected Time Between Orders

Expected Time Between Orders = Working Days per Year / Number of Orders

Expected Time Between Orders = 250 / 7.07

Expected Time Between Orders = 35.32 days

Therefore, the expected time between orders is 35.32 days.

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Consider the supply and demand equations: St = 0.4Pt-1 12 Dt = -0.8Pt +78, where St and D denote the market supply and market demand at time t. Assume Po = 70 and the equilibrium conditions prevail. Find the long-run price, that is, the price P₁ as ʼn grows to infinity. Round your answer off to two decimal places.

Answers

The long-run price (P₁) as ʼn grows to infinity is $52.00.

To find the long-run price (P₁), we need to determine the equilibrium price where market supply (St) equals market demand (Dt).

Given the supply equation: St = 0.4Pt-1

And the demand equation: Dt = -0.8Pt + 78

In equilibrium, St = Dt, so we can set the two equations equal to each other:

0.4Pt-1 = -0.8Pt + 78

Simplifying the equation:

0.4Pt-1 + 0.8Pt = 78

1.2Pt - 1 = 78

1.2Pt = 79

Pt = 79 / 1.2

Pt = 65.83

Therefore, the long-run price (P₁) as ʼn grows to infinity is $65.83. However, to round the answer off to two decimal places, the long-run price becomes $65.83.

The long-run price (P₁) as ʼn grows to infinity is $65.83. This is the equilibrium price at which market supply equals market demand, according to the given supply and demand equations. It's important to note that the equilibrium price represents the price at which there is no excess supply or demand in the market. By understanding the dynamics of supply and demand, businesses and policymakers can make informed decisions regarding pricing strategies and market interventions to maintain stability and efficiency in the market.

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B. Highlight FIVE (5) responsibilities of a carrier under the carrier’s liability of ocean transportation to ensure that cargo reaches its destination on time and in the original condition when it was loaded onto a vessel.

C. Explain the following terms and give an example of each as it relates to the carrier’s

liability in land transportation.

i. Act of God

ii. Public enemy

iii. Inherent nature of goods

iv. Acts of negligence by shipper

Answers

The consequences of the introduction of an Applicant Tracking System (ATS) for a medium-sized retail company that has 12 recruiters who report to the manager of a recruitment function are likely to include the following:

As a manager of a recruitment function for a medium-sized retail company with 12 recruiters reporting to you, the recent introduction of an Applicant Tracking System (ATS) may have some consequences. Here are some of the likely consequences that may occur:Suitable candidates for open roles may not progress to the next step in the hiring process: The system may filter out potential suitable candidates based on incomplete, inconsistent, or inaccurate applications. Therefore, some qualified candidates may not proceed to the next level.The ratio of offers extended to candidates and offers accepted by candidates will go up: By using an ATS to screen and filter out suitable applicants, the hiring team will only focus on the most qualified applicants.

Therefore, the likelihood of making offers to qualified candidates will increase.The quality of hires will go up: As a result of only considering the most suitable candidates for each role, the ATS system will increase the quality of hires. It will provide the hiring team with more significant insights into the credentials of potential applicants and their professional experience.A larger number of CVs can now be screened: With an ATS system in place, more resumes can be screened in less time. The system filters out resumes that do not meet the criteria for the advertised job role. This process allows hiring managers and recruiters to save time and energy in the long run.Long answer:As a manager of a recruitment function for a medium-sized retail company with 12 recruiters reporting to you, the recent introduction of an Applicant Tracking System (ATS) may have some consequences.

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Question Two The following balances pertaining to fixed assets have been extracted from the trial balance of Macro Traders for the year ended 31 December 2021: Amount (K) Non-current assets at cost 12,500,000 Accumulated depreciation 3,125,000 Depreciation expense 625,000 Gain on disposal of non-current assets 29,000 Depreciation on non-current assets is charged from the month of addition to the month prior to disposal using reducing balance method at 20% per annum.

Answers

The information provided highlights the company's depreciation practices and the recognition of a gain on the disposal of non-current assets, which affects the company's financial statements and profitability.

The information provided indicates that Macro Traders has non-current assets with a cost of $12,500,000. The accumulated depreciation is $3,125,000, and the depreciation expense for the year is $625,000. Additionally, a gain on the disposal of non-current assets of $29,000 is reported.

The company applies the reducing balance method to calculate depreciation on its non-current assets. This method depreciates assets at a fixed rate, applied to the carrying value of the asset, typically based on the asset's useful life. In this case, the depreciation rate is 20% per annum.

Using the reducing balance method, the depreciation expense is higher in the early years of an asset's life and decreases over time. The depreciation is charged from the month of addition to the month prior to disposal. The accumulated depreciation represents the cumulative depreciation charged over the life of the assets.

The gain on disposal of non-current assets suggests that the company sold some of its assets during the year at a higher price than their carrying value.

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