T/F. The optimal number of hedgning contract without tailing is always greater than number of optimal hedging contracts with tailing.

Answers

Answer 1

The given statement "The optimal number of hedging contracts without tailing is always greater than the number of optimal hedging contracts with tailing is False because the optimal number of hedging contracts without tailing is not always greater than the number of optimal hedging contracts with tailing.

It is dependent on the level of inventory involved as well as the contract specifications.As per the hedging theory, if the inventory is static and there are no time and inventory costs involved, then the optimal number of contracts will be equal to the level of inventory, irrespective of whether the hedging is with or without tailing. However, the situation changes when there are inventory and time costs involved.

Under such situations, the number of contracts required to hedge the inventory may either increase or decrease with tailing as compared to no tailing.Besides, depending on the hedging instruments and contract specifications, there may be situations where hedging with tailing may require more contracts as compared to no tailing while sometimes the opposite can happen.

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Related Questions

How do the vast majority of services enter a foreign market?
A) importing and exporting
B) smuggling and pirating
C) licensing, franchising, or direct investment
D) through brokers
E) through diaspora population

Answers

The vast majority of services enter a foreign market primarily through licensing, franchising, or direct investment. The correct answer is option (C).

This approach allows businesses to establish a presence and deliver their services in a new market. Licensing involves granting permission to a foreign entity to use intellectual property, such as trademarks or patents, in exchange for fees or royalties. This allows businesses to expand their services by leveraging the local knowledge and resources of the licensee.

Franchising involves granting rights to a foreign entity to operate a business using the established brand, systems, and support provided by the franchisor. Franchising allows for rapid expansion of services while sharing risks and rewards with local franchisees. Direct investment involves setting up operations in a foreign market, either through wholly-owned subsidiaries or joint ventures. This allows businesses to have full control over their operations and tailor their services to the local market. Hence option (C) is the correct answer.

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Which of the following statements regarding the Malthusian model are correct when there is a positive Question 7 one-off technological shock (such as an improved seed)? (a) There is an immediate and permanent rise in the average product of labor. (b) The population initially rises but then falls to the pre-technological shock level. (c) Income initially rises but then falls to the subsistence level in equilibrium. (d) A single upward shift of the production function results in both increased population and wages in the long run.

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The correct statements regarding the Malthusian model when companies there is a positive one-off technological shock are (a) There is an immediate and permanent rise in the average product of labor. (b) The population initially rises but then falls to the pre-technological shock level.

A single upward shift of the production function results in both increased population and wages in the long run.What is the Malthusian Model?The Malthusian Model is an economic model that was developed by Thomas Malthus (1766-1834) in the 18th century. According to this model, there is a conflict between population growth and the limited resources available to it.The Malthusian model predicts that if there is a positive one-off technological shock, such as an improved seed, then there will be an immediate and permanent rise in the average product of labor. This is because the improved seed will result in increased productivity, which will lead to higher wages and increased population growth.

However, the model also predicts that the population will initially rise but then fall back to the pre-technological shock level. This is because the increased productivity will lead to increased income and consumption, which will lead to increased population growth, which will in turn lead to decreased wages and increased mortality rates.As a result, in the long run, a single upward shift of the production function results in both increased population and wages. The population will continue to grow until it reaches the subsistence level in equilibrium, at which point both population growth and wages will stabilize.

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Ajax Limited is a company listed on the NZX. Ajax has announced it will make a dividend payment at the end of the year of $1.75 per share. The average annual growth rate in the company's dividends over the past five years has been 5%. Ajax's shareholders have a required rate of return of 15%p.a. Ajax's shares have been trading very consistently around $20 per share for the past few months and analysts suggest this is likely to continue for the foreseeable future. How can you explain this price based on the constant growth dividend discount model?

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Based on the constant growth dividend discount model, as the market price of the shares is higher than the intrinsic value, analysts suggest that company is likely to continue the growth for the foreseeable future.

Constant growth dividend discount model is a valuation technique used for calculating the intrinsic value of a share of stock. A share of stock is considered to have an intrinsic value that is equal to the present value of all of its future dividends. The formula for this model is as follows:

PV of expected dividends = D / (k - g)

where: D = the expected dividend payment, k = the required rate of return of the shareholders, g = the annual growth rate of the dividend payments.

Using the constant growth dividend discount model, the price of Ajax shares can be calculated as follows:

PV of expected dividends = D / (k - g) = $1.75 / (15% - 5%) = $1.75 / 10% = $17.50

Therefore, based on the constant growth dividend discount model, the price of Ajax shares should be $17.50.

Since Ajax's shares are trading consistently around $20 per share, the market price is higher than the intrinsic value. This can be attributed to the fact that the market may be expecting the company to grow faster than it has in the past five years, or it may be due to other factors such as market sentiment or speculation.

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A pharmacy decides to offer customers three choices of vaccines instead of one. It is most likely that
a. Demand uncertainy decreases
b. Total vaccine inventory will be reduced
c. Demand uncertainty increases
d. Supply uncertainty decreases

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When a pharmacy decides to offer customers three choices of vaccines instead of one, it is most likely that c. Demand uncertainty increases.

Offering customers multiple choices of vaccines instead of just one can lead to an increase in demand uncertainty. With a single vaccine option, the pharmacy can estimate demand based on historical data and forecast more accurately. However, when customers have multiple choices, their preferences may vary, making it harder to predict which specific vaccines will be in higher demand.

By providing three choices, the pharmacy introduces more variability into customer preferences and increases the likelihood of uncertain demand patterns. Different customers may have different preferences, leading to fluctuations in demand for each vaccine option. This variability makes it challenging for the pharmacy to accurately forecast demand and plan their inventory levels effectively.

Options a. (Demand uncertainty decreases), b. (Total vaccine inventory will be reduced), and d. (Supply uncertainty decreases) are not the most likely outcomes when offering multiple vaccine choices. Introducing more options does not necessarily decrease demand uncertainty or reduce overall vaccine inventory. It may actually require the pharmacy to manage a larger inventory to accommodate different vaccine options and satisfy customer preferences. Additionally, supply uncertainty is not directly influenced by the number of vaccine choices available to customers.

Therefore, the correct answer is c. Demand uncertainty increases, as offering multiple vaccine choices introduces variability and makes it more challenging for the pharmacy to accurately predict and manage customer demand.

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When a pharmacy decides to offer customers three choices of vaccines instead of one, it is most likely that c. Demand uncertainty increases.

Offering customers multiple choices of vaccines instead of just one can lead to an increase in demand uncertainty. With a single vaccine option, the pharmacy can estimate demand based on historical data and forecast more accurately. However, when customers have multiple choices, their preferences may vary, making it harder to predict which specific vaccines will be in higher demand.

By providing three choices, the pharmacy introduces more variability into customer preferences and increases the likelihood of uncertain demand patterns. Different customers may have different preferences, leading to fluctuations in demand for each vaccine option. This variability makes it challenging for the pharmacy to accurately forecast demand and plan their inventory levels effectively.

Options a. (Demand uncertainty decreases), b. (Total vaccine inventory will be reduced), and d. (Supply uncertainty decreases) are not the most likely outcomes when offering multiple vaccine choices. Introducing more options does not necessarily decrease demand uncertainty or reduce overall vaccine inventory. It may actually require the pharmacy to manage a larger inventory to accommodate different vaccine options and satisfy customer preferences. Additionally, supply uncertainty is not directly influenced by the number of vaccine choices available to customers.

Therefore, the correct answer is c. Demand uncertainty increases, as offering multiple vaccine choices introduces variability and makes it more challenging for the pharmacy to accurately predict and manage customer demand.

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A. A market segment that is comprised of brand loyal customers who are already being targeted by a large number of existing companies would make an attractive target market to enter.
B. A market segment that is comprised of people whose needs are not being met well by existing companies, but is a poor match with your company's mission, objectives, and deployment of resources would make an attractive target market to enter.
C. A new soda product called Dr. Pepper Ten was launched with the slogan "It's not for women," targeting men. The marketing campaign was unsuccessful; sex or gender identity don't create different consumption behaviors toward soda. Gender identity was not a good variable to choose for segmentation.

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C. A new soda product called Dr. Pepper Ten was launched with the slogan "It's not for women," targeting men. The marketing campaign was unsuccessful; sex or gender identity don't create different consumption behaviors toward soda. Gender identity was not a good variable to choose for segmentation.

The statement C is correct. The marketing campaign for Dr. Pepper Ten, which targeted men by excluding women, was unsuccessful. Gender identity alone is not a reliable variable fo  in the context of soda consumption behavior. It is important to consider that consumption behaviors and preferences are not solely determined by sex or gender identity. Using gender identity as the basis for segmentation without a strong correlation to consumption behaviors could lead to ineffective targeting and alienation of potential customers.

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WH Smith Company is evaluating three projects: A, B, C, with cash flows as given in the table. Each project requires an initial investment of $99,000 and has a required return of 10%. Year 1 : 50,000 - 0 - 20,000. Year 2 : 40,000 - 50,000 - 40,000. Year 3: 20,000 - 50,000 - 40,000 . Year 4 : 10,000 - 40,000 - 40,000. Attempt 175 for 10 pts. Part 1 18 What is the payback period for project A (in years)? 2+ decimals Submit Attempt 1/5 for 10 pts. Part 2 IB | What is the payback period for project B (in years)?

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To calculate the payback period for Project A, we need to determine how long it takes for the cumulative cash flows to equal or exceed the initial investment of $99,000.

For Project A:
Year 1 cash flow: $50,000
Year 2 cash flow: $40,000
Year 3 cash flow: $20,000
Year 4 cash flow: $10,000
Cumulative cash flow after Year 1: $50,000
Cumulative cash flow after Year 2: $50,000 + $40,000 = $90,000
Cumulative cash flow after Year 3: $90,000 + $20,000 = $110,000
Cumulative cash flow after Year 4: $110,000 + $10,000 = $120,000
Since the cumulative cash flow exceeds the initial investment in Year 4, the payback period for Project A is between 3 and 4 years. To calculate the exact payback period, we can use linear interpolation:
Payback Period = Year 3 + (Unrecovered Cost at the Start of Year 4 / Cash Flow in Year 4)
Payback Period = 3 + ($99,000 - $90,000) / $10,000
Payback Period = 3.9 years
Therefore, the payback period for Project A is approximately 3.9 years. For Project B, the payback period calculation follows the same process using the given cash flows.

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Baldwin earned revenue of $157,503,605 and had expenses of $148,618,667. This will cause which of the following changes in equity? a) Equity will increase $157,503,605 b) Equity will decrease $8,884,939 c) Equity will decrease $148,618,667 d) Equity will increase $8,884,939

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Baldwin earned revenue of $157,503,605 and had expenses of $148,618,667. This will cause the change in equity to be an increase of $8,884,939.

The change in equity resulting from Baldwin's revenue of $157,503,605 and expenses of $148,618,667 would be an increase of $8,884,939. This is because revenue represents an increase in equity, while expenses represent a decrease. The difference between the two, which is commonly referred to as net income or profit, ultimately factors into the calculation of equity. In this case, Baldwin's revenue exceeded its expenses, resulting in a positive net income that would increase equity. Other factors that could impact equity include changes in assets and liabilities, dividend payments, and share issuances or buybacks. Overall, understanding how different financial activities affect equity is critical for businesses looking to manage their finances effectively and maximize shareholder value.

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Which type of life insurance has premiums that increase with age?
a Creditor insurance
b Whole life insurance
c Term insurance
d Long-term care insurance

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The type of life insurance that has premiums that increase with age is term insurance. Term insurance provides coverage for a specific term, such as 10, 20, or 30 years.

The premiums for term insurance are typically lower when the policy is initially purchased but increase as the insured individual gets older. Unlike whole life insurance, which has level premiums that remain constant throughout the policy's duration, term insurance premiums are based on the insured individual's age and health at the time of policy issuance.

As the insured individual ages, the risk of mortality increases, resulting in higher premiums to compensate for the increased risk. Therefore, term insurance is the type of life insurance where premiums generally increase with age.

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Suppose that the production function is Y=10(K)1/4(L)3/4 and capital lasts for an average of 50 years so that 2 % of capital wears out every year. Assume that the rate of growth of population equals 0. If the savings rate s=0.128, calculate the steady-state level of capital per worker, output per worker, consumption per worker, savings and investment per worker, and depreciation per worker.

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The steady-state level of capital per worker is approximately 3.52, output per worker is approximately 6.19, consumption per worker is approximately 4.67, savings and investment per worker is approximately 0.80, and depreciation per worker is approximately 0.07.

To calculate the steady-state level of capital per worker, we use the equation k* = (sY* - δk*) / (n + g), where k* represents capital per worker, s is the savings rate, Y* is output per worker, δ is the depreciation rate, n is the population growth rate, and g is the technological progress rate. Since the population growth rate is given as 0, n = 0. The technological progress rate is also not specified, so we assume it to be zero, g = 0. The depreciation rate is 2% per year, which means δ = 0.02.

Substituting the given values into the equation, we have k* = (0.128 * 6.19 - 0.02 * k*) / (0 + 0). Solving this equation, we find k* = 3.52.

Next, we can calculate output per worker (Y*) using the production function Y = 10(K^(1/4))(L^(3/4)). Since we know k*, we can substitute it into the production function and solve for Y*. Plugging in k* = 3.52, we find Y* = 6.19.

To calculate consumption per worker, we use the equation c* = Y* - δk*. Substituting the values, c* = 6.19 - (0.02 * 3.52) = 4.67.

Savings and investment per worker are equal to sY*, which is approximately 0.128 * 6.19 = 0.80.

Depreciation per worker is equal to δk*, which is approximately 0.02 * 3.52 = 0.07.

In conclusion, the steady-state level of capital per worker is approximately 3.52, output per worker is approximately 6.19, consumption per worker is approximately 4.67, savings and investment per worker is approximately 0.80, and depreciation per worker is approximately 0.07.

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a. Examine the auditor’s report. Is the auditor identified as an independent CPA firm? A state audit agency? Other? Is the wording of the auditor’s report the same as illustrated in this chapter? Does the scope paragraph indicate exactly what is covered by the auditor’s opinion? If the auditor is expressing an opinion only on the basic financial statements, what responsibility is taken for the combining and individual fund statements? Is the opinion unmodified? If not, what are the qualifications?

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In auditing, the auditor's report is the outcome of an audit conducted by an auditor. It includes the auditor's opinion on the financial statements' fairness and reliability and includes supporting explanations and justifications for the opinion.

The report's language will differ depending on the type of audit conducted and the auditor who conducted it. The following are the characteristics of an auditor's report: Whether the auditor is identified as an independent CPA firm, a state audit agency, or any other auditor The wording of the auditor's report is frequently the same as in the example provided by the chapter. The scope paragraph is frequently found in the auditor's report, indicating precisely what is covered by the auditor's opinion. Suppose the auditor is only expressing an opinion on the primary financial statements. In that case, he or she is not responsible for the combining and individual fund statements. The audit opinion is unmodified if the auditor concurs with the financial statements, and no modifications are required. However, if there are changes, the auditor may offer a qualified opinion, an adverse opinion, or a disclaimer of opinion. In a qualified opinion, the auditor offers an opinion that is favorable but with certain reservations or conditions. These conditions may include that there was a significant uncertainty that affected the financial statements or a restriction on the scope of the audit. The auditor will give an adverse opinion if the financial statements contain a significant misstatement. The auditor will provide a disclaimer of opinion if the scope of the audit is insufficient or the auditor's ability to gather data is limited.

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Paraphrase the following sentences. Number 1 has been done for you as an example.

The car that was pulled over by the police officer yesterday just had an accident. That driver was not careful.

Yesterday, there was an accident due to a driver who was not careful and the car was pulled over by the police.

Cell phones usage has exploded over the past decade and continues to rise. Today there are over one billion phone users worldwide.

Concern has arisen over whether cell phone usage can harm a person’s health. Brain cancer rates in the United States have risen since cell phones were introduced, leading some people to wonder if cell phone usage is the reason for the increase.

School teacher is an essential foundation component in achieving the mission and vision of an education sector.

The growing emphasis on the learner-centred approach has been influential in all walks of education and, not surprisingly, the focus on the learners has become more pronounced than ever.

In the era of the technology revolution, the top priority of a teacher's job can do multitasking at once. Most importantly, teachers need to prepare teaching methodologies in order to present effective learning.

Answers

Paraphrasing the following sentences, we get :

1. Yesterday, there was an accident due to a driver who was not careful and the car was pulled over by the police.

2. The use of cell phones has experienced a significant surge in the past ten years and continues to escalate. Presently, there are over one billion individuals worldwide who utilize phones.

3. There is growing concern regarding the potential health risks associated with cell phone usage. Since the introduction of cell phones, brain cancer rates in the United States have shown an increase, prompting speculation about the role of cell phone usage in this rise.

4. School teachers play a crucial role in realizing the objectives and vision of the education sector, serving as a foundational component.

5. The learner-centered approach has gained considerable influence across all areas of education. Consequently, the focus on learners has become more prominent than ever before.

6. In the age of the technology revolution, teachers are expected to prioritize multitasking. Additionally, they need to develop effective teaching methodologies to ensure impactful learning experiences.

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Choose from the drop-down menu the type of share being described:
common shares, preferred shares or both common and preferred shares
or neither common nor preferred shares.
a.
Requires a journal

Answers

a. Requires a journal entry to record the issue of the shares but not the authorization of shares. The type of share is Both

b. Is recorded at the fair value of the consideration received when shares are issued for a noncash consideration. The type of share is Both

c. Has priority regarding the distribution of dividends and, in the event of liquidation, over the distribution of assets. The type of share is Preferred

d. Is usually issued with a specified dividend rate. The type of share is Preferred

e. Gives the shareholder the right to vote at annual general meetings. The type of share isBoth

f. Does not guarantee that dividends will be paid to shareholders. The type of share is Common

g. May have a cumulative or non-cumulative dividend feature. The type of share is Both

h. Is a form of liability. The type of share is Neither

a. Requires a journal entry to record the issue of the shares but not the authorization of shares. Both common and preferred shares require a journal entry to record their issuance, as they represent ownership in the company.

b. Is recorded at the fair value of the consideration received when shares are issued for a noncash consideration. Both common and preferred shares are recorded at their fair value when issued for noncash consideration, ensuring accurate valuation of the shares.

c. Has priority regarding the distribution of dividends and, in the event of liquidation, over the distribution of assets. Preferred shares have priority over common shares when it comes to dividend distribution and the distribution of assets during liquidation, providing a higher level of preference to preferred shareholders.

d. Is usually issued with a specified dividend rate. Preferred shares typically have a specified dividend rate, which guarantees a fixed dividend payment to the shareholders before any dividends are distributed to common shareholders.

e. Gives the shareholder the right to vote at annual general meetings. Both common and preferred shares can give shareholders the right to vote at annual general meetings, allowing them to participate in the decision-making process of the company.

f. Does not guarantee that dividends will be paid to shareholders. Common shares do not have a guaranteed dividend payment, as dividend distribution is at the discretion of the company's management and depends on the company's profitability and financial position.

g. May have a cumulative or non-cumulative dividend feature. Both common and preferred shares may have a cumulative or non-cumulative dividend feature. Cumulative preferred shares accumulate any unpaid dividends and must be paid in the future, whereas non-cumulative preferred shares do not accumulate unpaid dividends.

h. Is a form of liability. Neither common nor preferred shares are considered liabilities. They represent ownership in the company and are categorized as equity on the company's balance sheet.

The complete question must be:

Choose from the drop-down menu the type of share being described: common shares, preferred shares or both common and preferred shares or neither common nor preferred shares.

a. Requires a journal entry to record the issue of the shares but not the authorization of shares.  

select the type of share Preferred, Neither, Common, Both

b. Is recorded at the fair value of the consideration received when shares are issued for a noncash consideration.  

select the type of share Both, Common, Preferred, Neither

c. Has priority regarding the distribution of dividends and, in the event of liquidation, over the distribution of assets.  

select the type of share Preferred, Common, Neither, Both

d. Is usually issued with a specified dividend rate.  

select the type of share Both, Common, Neither, Preferred

e. Gives the shareholder the right to vote at annual general meetings.  

select the type of share Both, Preferred, Common, Neither

f. Does not guarantee that dividends will be paid to shareholders.  

select the type of share NeitherBothPreferredCommon

g. May have a cumulative or non-cumulative dividend feature.  

select the type of share Both, Preferred, Common, Neither

h. Is a form of liability.  

select the type of share Preferred, Neither, Both, Common

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Braun Inc. has an investment opportunity that will yield cash flows of $33,000 per year in Years 1 through 4, $37,000 per year in Years 5 through 9, and $43,000 in Year 10. This investment will cost $225,000 today, and the firm's WACC is 10%. What is the payback period for this investment and what is the NPV? Should this project be accepted; why or why not?

Answers

The payback period for the investment is approximately 8.47 years, and the Net Present Value (NPV) is approximately $8,816.91. Based on these calculations, the project should be accepted.

To determine the payback period, we need to find the time it takes for the cumulative cash flows to equal or exceed the initial investment. We sum the cash flows until they surpass the initial cost. In this case:

Year 1-4 Cash Flows: $33,000 × 4 = $132,000

Year 5-9 Cash Flows: $37,000 × 5 = $185,000

Year 10 Cash Flow: $43,000

Total Cash Flows: $132,000 + $185,000 + $43,000 = $360,000

The payback period can be calculated by dividing the initial cost by the average annual cash flows:

Payback Period = Initial Cost / Average Annual Cash Flows

Payback Period = $225,000 / ($360,000 / 10) ≈ 8.47 years

The NPV is determined by discounting the cash flows to their present values using the firm's Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) of 10%. Then we subtract the initial cost from the sum of the discounted cash flows:

NPV = PV of Cash Flows - Initial Cost

NPV = ($33,000 × PVIFA) + ($37,000 × PVIFA) + ($43,000 / (1 + WACC)^10) - $225,000

Calculating the NPV using the present value interest factor of annuity (PVIFA) for each cash flow period, we find NPV ≈ $8,816.91.

Since the payback period is less than the project's expected duration, and the NPV is positive, this project should be accepted. The payback period indicates a relatively quick recovery of the initial investment, and the positive NPV indicates that the project's discounted cash inflows exceed the initial cost. Thus, accepting the investment would be financially beneficial for Braun Inc.

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you have been asked to explain a few information security principles to a network infrastructure technician who has been in the industry for just a couple of years. after chatting a little while about threat actors, you decide to mention some of the attributes that differentiate attackers from one another, and which can help explain the types of attacks that can be expected from them. which of the following might you decide to include in the conversation?each correct answer represents a complete solution. choose three.

Answers

As you have been asked to explain a few information security principles to a network infrastructure technician, let's first learn about the attributes that differentiate attackers from one another and help explain the types of attacks that can be expected from them.

There are various types of attacks, and it's essential to understand the attributes that differentiate attackers from one another and help explain the types of attacks that can be expected from them. Some of the attributes that you might decide to include in the conversation are: Intentions:Intentions are an attacker's motivation to perform an attack. Some attackers might attack for financial gain, while others may attack to destroy data or gain unauthorized access to a system.

Attackers with more advanced skills can perform more sophisticated attacks. Some attackers may rely on social engineering to exploit vulnerabilities, while others may use advanced malware or exploit kits.3. Resources:Attackers with more resources may be able to perform more successful attacks. Some attackers may have access to more advanced technology or more significant funding, which can make it easier for them to launch successful attacks.Other attributes to differentiate attackers can be added to the list. However, these three attributes can help explain the types of attacks that can be expected from the attackers.

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Sovereign risk refers to the possibility that a ___ will default on debt owned by a ____ A) Foreign banking system; large corporation B) Domestic banking system; government C) Government; bank D) Borrower; bank

Answers

Sovereign risk refers to the possibility that a government will default on debt owned by a bank. The correct option is C.

Sovereign risk can be defined as the risk of default or non-payment by a government on its debt obligations. It is the risk of loss associated with investing in a country's bonds or other government-backed securities. The government's default may affect the value of the nation's currency and raise the risk of other sovereign defaults. When a country's credit rating is lowered, the cost of borrowing money rises.

As a result, investors may be hesitant to lend money to governments with a higher likelihood of default, resulting in higher interest rates on government bonds. Banks are the largest buyers of government securities. When a government defaults on its debts, banks and other financial institutions are the first to suffer losses. Because banks are the largest purchasers of sovereign bonds, they suffer the most significant losses.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C. Government; bank

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Marcy Corporation purchased inventory costing $110,000 and sold 80% of the goods for $158,000. All purchases and sales were on account. Marcy later collected 25% of the accounts receivable. Assume tha

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Marcy Corporation purchased inventory costing $110,000 and sold 80% of the goods for $158,000. All purchases and sales were on account. Marcy later collected 25% of the accounts receivable.

How much revenue did Marcy Corporation generate from the sales of inventory purchased for $110,000 on account?

The revenue generated by Marcy Corporation from the sales of inventory purchased for $110,000 on account amounts to $126,400.

This is calculated by multiplying the selling price ($158,000) by the percentage of goods sold (80%).

However, since Marcy later collected only 25% of the accounts receivable, the total revenue collected would be $31,600.

Marcy Corporation purchased inventory costing $110,000 and sold 80% of the goods for $158,000. This means the selling price of the goods sold is $126,400 ($158,000 × 80%).

However, it is important to note that all purchases and sales were made on account, which means that the payment for these transactions would be collected at a later date.

Later on, Marcy Corporation collected only 25% of the accounts receivable. Accounts receivable refers to the outstanding payments owed to the company by its customers. Therefore, Marcy was able to collect $31,600 ($126,400 × 25%) from the accounts receivable.

In summary, the revenue generated from the sales of inventory purchased for $110,000 on account by Marcy Corporation amounts to $126,400. However, Marcy later collected only 25% of the accounts receivable, resulting in a total collection of $31,600.

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As the head of the international human resource management of an MNE headquartered in Ghana with 10 subsidiaries from other countries. You have been tasked to interview applicants for the position of country manager for the respective 10 subsidiaries in 14 days amidst Covid-19 challenges.
(a) Discuss any 5 advantages of online interviews.
(b) State the main difference between a Competency Based question and a Situational interview question?
(c) Outline three (3) verbal Do’s and three (3) non-verbal Don’ts applicants should consider when preparing for virtual job interviews.

Answers

(a) Five advantages of online interviews are cost-effective, efficiency, geographical barriers, easy access to information, and recording facility.

(b) Competency-based questions evaluate the candidate's performance in similar situations in the past while situational interview are hypothetical questions to assess the candidate's ability to tackle a particular issue.

(c) Verbal Do's include speaking clearly, using professional language, and showing enthusiasm. Non-verbal Don'ts are excessive movement,  touching your face or hair, and poor posture.

(a) Advantages of online interviews are as follows:

Cost-effective: One of the biggest benefits of conducting online interviews is the cost factor. As interviews are usually conducted in person, both employers and job candidates incur expenses for traveling. The use of online interviews eliminates this cost.Efficiency: Online interviews provide flexibility in terms of scheduling interviews that suit the employer and the job candidate. This can result in a more efficient and streamlined hiring process.Geographical barriers: Online interviews eliminate geographical barriers as interviews can be conducted regardless of the job candidate’s location.Easy access to information: During an online interview, candidates can have quick access to relevant resources like their resume and online portfolio. This helps them refer to the documents and ensures a smoother and more effective interview process.Recording facility: Some online interview platforms allow the interviewer to record the entire interview, which can be reviewed later to evaluate the candidate's skills and abilities.

(b) Competency-based questions are asked to evaluate the candidate's performance in similar situations in the past. This type of question is asked to understand the behavioral traits of the candidate. The aim is to determine whether the candidate is the right fit for the company culture.

Situational interview questions are usually hypothetical questions designed to test the candidate's ability to tackle a particular issue. This question tests how the candidate will react when facing an unfamiliar situation.

(c) During a virtual job interview, the verbal Do's are as follows:

Speak clearly, Use professional language, Show enthusiasm.

The non-verbal Don'ts are as follows:

Fidgeting or excessive movement, Touching your face or hair, Slouching or poor posture.

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Mike is the proud owner of Prospect X, which he values at $10 (so, for Mike, CE(X) = $10). If EV(X) = $12, what is the most you can say about Mike's risk preferences and/or his utility of wealth function? (Select all that apply) Mike's utility of wealth function must be concave. Mike must be risk averse. For Mike, it must be the case that U(EV(X)) > $10.
If Mike had to choose between Prospect X and receiving $9 with certainty, he would choose the $9.

Answers

Based on the given information, the following statements can be made about Mike's risk preferences and the utility of wealth function:

Mike's utility of wealth function must be concave: This statement is correct. If Mike's utility of wealth function is concave, it implies that he exhibits risk aversion, which means he prefers less risky options that offer a higher expected value.

Mike must be risk averse: This statement is correct. If Mike values Prospect X at $10 but the expected value of Prospect X is $12, it suggests that Mike prefers a sure outcome of $10 over the uncertain outcome with a higher expected value. This behavior is consistent with risk aversion.

For Mike, it must be the case that U(EV(X)) > $10: This statement is incorrect. Since Mike values Prospect X at $10 and the expected value of Prospect X is $12, it implies that the expected utility of Prospect X (U(EV(X))) is equal to or less than $10. Therefore, U(EV(X)) ≤ $10.

If Mike had to choose between Prospect X and receiving $9 with certainty, he would choose the $9: This statement is consistent with Mike's risk aversion. Given that the value he assigns to Prospect X is $10 and the certain outcome is $9, he would choose the lower but guaranteed amount, indicating his aversion to taking on risk.

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Pearson Airport is to undergo a major renovation to improve users' experience throughout the whole system, from check-in to take off. As a member of the engineering team hired to deliver this project, you have been tasked with developing three personas that represent different users to help with the design thinking process for this project. Note that users include both passengers and the people that work at the airport or run services to the airport. Read through and review the persona lecture slides and watch the videos from the slides to address the following points.

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As part of the engineering team for Pearson Airport's major renovation, the task is to develop three personas representing different users (including passengers and airport staff) to aid the design thinking process. These personas will ensure a comprehensive understanding of user needs and preferences, leading to an improved user experience from check-in to take-off.

Developing Personas: Personas are fictional characters that represent specific user types, capturing their behaviors, preferences, and goals. By creating personas for Pearson Airport, the engineering team can gain insights into the diverse needs and expectations of different users. These personas will serve as a valuable tool throughout the design thinking process, allowing the team to empathize with users and design solutions tailored to their requirements.Inclusive Representation: The personas should be inclusive, encompassing both passengers and the people working at the airport or running services to the airport. This broad representation ensures that the renovation project considers the needs of all stakeholders involved in the airport ecosystem. By including airport staff personas, such as security personnel, cleaning staff, or retail workers, the team can address their unique requirements and challenges, improving their working environment and efficiency.User-Centered Design: The personas will facilitate the application of a user-centered design approach to the renovation project. By understanding the distinct characteristics, motivations, and pain points of different user types, the engineering team can identify opportunities for improvement and innovation. This user-centric approach ensures that the renovation project focuses on enhancing the overall user experience, creating a more seamless, efficient, and enjoyable journey for passengers while addressing the needs of airport staff.

The rationale behind developing personas lies in their ability to humanize and bring user needs to the forefront of the design process. By utilizing personas, the engineering team can design with empathy and create solutions that cater to the specific requirements and expectations of different user types. This approach ultimately leads to an improved user experience throughout the entire airport system, from check-in to take-off.

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1) Price(which pricing strategy Starbucks
Malaysia used?)
2) Place (Distribution strategy: How can customer buy
Starbucks Malaysia products)

Answers

The pricing strategy used by Starbucks Malaysia is the premium pricing strategy. Starbucks Malaysia is a premium brand of coffee that operates within the coffeehouse industry.

They have employed the premium pricing strategy to increase their profit margins by selling their coffee products at higher prices compared to other brands in the market.2. Distribution strategy of Starbucks MalaysiaThe Place strategy employed by Starbucks Malaysia is through company-owned stores and franchisees, which are in line with their mission to "inspire and nurture the human spirit – one person, one cup, and one neighborhood at a time". Customers can purchase Starbucks Malaysia products through these stores and even through the company's online store where they can order the coffee products and have them delivered to their doorstep. This distribution strategy has helped to increase the availability of Starbucks Malaysia products to their customers and also to increase the company's revenue.

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A manufacturer of diesel locomotives needs 50,000 hours to produce the first unit. Based on past experience with similar products, you know that the rate of learning is 80 percent. Estimate the direct labor required for the 40th diesel locomotive and the cumulative average number of labor hours per unit for the first 40 units.
a 15,355
b. 12,801
c. 14,250
d. 15,248

Answers

The direct labor required for the 40th diesel locomotive is the 12,801 (b) and the cumulative average number of labor hours per unit for the first 40 units is  0.12494H0.

The solution to this problem is as follows:

Estimate the direct labor required for the 40th diesel locomotive and the cumulative average number of labor hours per unit for the first 40 units.

Let us assume that the direct labor required to produce the first unit is H0.

When the second unit is produced, the direct labor required will be H0 x 0.80 = 0.8H0.

When the third unit is produced, the direct labor required will be 0.8H0 x 0.80 = 0.64H0.

Continuing in this way, the direct labor required for the nth unit is Hn = H0 x 0.8^(n-1)

For n = 40, we haveH40 = H0 x 0.8^(39)

For the cumulative average number of labor hours per unit for the first 40 units, we have 1/40 [H0 + H1 + H2 + H3 + ... + H39]

The sum of H0 + H1 + H2 + H3 + ... + H39 is a geometric series with a = H0 and r = 0.8.

Therefore, the sum isH0 [1 - 0.8^40]/(1 - 0.8) = 4.9977H0

The average number of labor hours per unit for the first 40 units is Havg = (1/40) x 4.9977H0= 0.12494H0

The estimated direct labor required for the 40th diesel locomotive is 12,801 and the cumulative average number of labor hours per unit for the first 40 units is 0.12494H0. Therefore, the correct option is b. 12,801.

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Which of the following statements is incorrect about closing entries? A After the closing entries are made, only the temporary or nominal accounts remain such as assets, liabilities, and capital. B Only the temporary accounts or nominal accounts such as income, expenses, income summary, and drawings are being closed. C) The temporary accounts with debit balance are credited and the temporary account with credit balance are debited. D The reason for closing the accounts is that the income is good for a certain period and that is to be closed to the capital account to be carried forward to the next accounting period.

Answers

The incorrect statement is D) The reason for closing the accounts is that the income is good for a certain period and that is to be closed to the capital account to be carried forward to the next accounting period.

Closing entries serve the purpose of transferring the balances of temporary or nominal accounts (such as income, expenses, income summary, and drawings) to the retained earnings or capital account. The objective is to reset the temporary accounts to zero and prepare them for the upcoming accounting period.

The reason for closing the accounts is not specifically related to income being good for a certain period. Rather, it is to ensure accurate financial reporting by separating temporary account balances from permanent account balances.

Temporary accounts are closed to retained earnings or the capital account to capture the net income or loss generated during the period. This helps in maintaining the continuity of the retained earnings or capital balance, reflecting the cumulative profit or loss over time.

Therefore, closing entries are necessary to reset temporary accounts, transfer their balances to retained earnings or capital, and accurately report financial results. The purpose is not solely related to income being good for a certain period, but rather to separate temporary and permanent accounts and maintain accurate financial records.

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The production function in a widget factory is described as Widgets = min (2K, √I) The marginal rate of technical substitution is likely to be decreasing as labor increases.

Answers

The given production function of a widget factory is described as Widgets = min (2K, √I). The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) is likely to be decreasing as labor increases.

The formula for MRTS can be given as follows: MRTS = ΔK/ΔL. In the given production function, the value of Widgets is calculated as the minimum of 2K and √I. Let us find out the partial derivative of Widgets with respect to L:∂ Widgets/∂L = 0, if 2K > √I= 1/2√I, if 2K < √IThus, the marginal product of labor (MPL) can be written as: MPL = ∂ Widgets /∂L= 1/2√I, if 2K < √IIt is evident from the above equation that MPL is inversely proportional to the square root of the quantity √I. Thus, as the amount of labor increases, MPL decreases. Hence, MRTS is also likely to decrease as labor increases.

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A partnership that reports using ASPE has two current partners, Ting and Zoe, who share income and losses of the partnership equally. On January 1, 2020, the net assets of the partnership are $250,000. A new partner, Samantha, is admitted with a 25% ownership share after contributing $150,000 in cash.
How is the bonus allocated when admitting Samantha to the partnership, assuming the bonus method is used?

Answers

In the partnership, Ting and Zoe share income and losses equally, which means that each of them has a 50% ownership share. The bonus allocated when admitting Samantha to the partnership is $90,000

The partnership has a net asset value of $250,000 as of January 1, 2020. A new partner, Samantha, is admitted with a 25% ownership share after contributing $150,000 in cash. If the bonus method is used, the bonus allocation would be done as follows

When a new partner is admitted, the existing partners may decide to grant a bonus to the new partner. The bonus method is a way of distributing the bonus to the existing partners to compensate them for giving up part of their ownership share.

The bonus allocation method allocates the bonus to the partners based on the ratio of their existing ownership interest to the total ownership interest before the admission of the new partner.In this scenario, the total ownership interest before Samantha's admission is 100% (50% for Ting + 50% for Zoe). After Samantha is admitted, the total ownership interest increases to 125% (50% for Ting + 50% for Zoe + 25% for Samantha).

The existing partners have given up part of their ownership share to Samantha, and as such, they are entitled to a bonus. The bonus allocation to Ting and Zoe would be calculated as follows: Ting's bonus = (25% / 125%) x $150,000 = $30,000 Zoe's bonus = (25% / 125%) x $150,000 = $30,000 The bonus allocation to Ting and Zoe would be $30,000 each. Samantha would receive the remaining $90,000 ($150,000 - $30,000 - $30,000).

The total ownership interest in the partnership would be divided as follows: Ting - 37.5%, Zoe - 37.5%, and Samantha - 25%.

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Now consider a Keynesian Economy (iii) Briefly explain the Keynesian derivation of the money demand equation. If there is a sudden decrease in income, what happens to equilibrium in the money market?

Answers

This causes an excess supply of money in the market, causing interest rates to drop until a new equilibrium is established. This can occur through a decline in the price level or a reduction in the interest rate.

In a Keynesian economy, the demand for money arises because money is a store of value and an economy's transactions medium. It is affected by interest rates, the level of income, and price levels. Keynes, on the other hand, developed the theory of liquidity preference, which explains the demand for money. The money demand equation is derived from this principle. The money demand function is represented by:MD = f(Y, r)MD: Money DemandY: Level of Incomer: Interest RateThe equilibrium in the money market changes in response to a sudden reduction in income. As a result, demand for money decreases as people's income decreases. This causes an excess supply of money in the market, causing interest rates to drop until a new equilibrium is established. This can occur through a decline in the price level or a reduction in the interest rate.

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The notes to the financial statements are an integral part of the financial statements. They immediately follow the financial statements. The first note is normally the longest and includes discussion of all the following items EXCEPT: The cost flow assumption the company uses for costing inventory on the balance sheet (i.e.. FIFO, LIFO. weighted average method) O The depreciation method used for property and equipment (i.e., straight-line, double-declining balance) O Lawsuits the company faces O The point in which revenue is recognized from retail sales in its stores.

Answers

The notes to the financial statements are an essential part of the financial statements.

The first note in the report is usually the longest, and it incorporates the discussion of all the following items, with the exception of the point at which the revenue is recognized from retail sales in its stores. A company's financial statement may consist of three major parts: a balance sheet, a cash flow statement, and an income statement. The purpose of these statements is to provide information about the company's financial situation and how it's performing. Each statement presents a different aspect of the financials of a business. The balance sheet reports the company's assets, liabilities, and equity. The income statement reports the company's revenue, expenses, and net income or loss for a specified period. The cash flow statement shows the flow of cash in and out of the company during a period. The notes to the financial statements offer additional information about the company's financial position and performance. The financial statement notes explain the accounting policies used by the company, any significant events or transactions, and any other material information. This information provides transparency and allows investors and other stakeholders to make informed decisions. As noted in the question, the first note in the report is usually the longest, and it includes information about various items, such as the depreciation method used for property and equipment, the cost flow assumption that the company uses for costing inventory on the balance sheet, and lawsuits that the company faces. However, it does not include the point in which revenue is recognized from retail sales in its stores. The notes to the financial statements are crucial for understanding a company's financials. They provide details about various aspects of the financial statements, such as accounting policies, significant transactions, and other relevant information. These notes are an integral part of the financial statements, and they help investors and other stakeholders make informed decisions.

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Two stocks. A and B, each have a beta equal to 2. However, Scock A's variance is twice as large as Stock B's variance. a, Which stock is more risky? b. Which stock provides a higher expected rate of return?

Answers

a. The risk level of the stock is determined by its variance or standard deviation. b. The anticipated return from a stock is determined by its beta.

a. A higher variance or standard deviation implies that the stock's returns are more unpredictable. Since Stock A has twice the variance of Stock B, it is more dangerous than Stock B. Since both stocks have the same beta, the only thing that distinguishes them is their variance or standard deviation. As a result, the riskier of the two stocks is Stock A.

b. The beta of the stock measures how responsive the stock is to the general market. Since both stocks have a beta of 2, they have the same expected return. Even if Stock A's variance is twice that of Stock B's variance, it is irrelevant since beta is the only factor that determines the expected return.

As a result, both stocks have the same expected rate of return. In the end, the choice between these two stocks will be determined by how much risk an investor is willing to take.

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Illustrate all effects that causes a discount loan of $100 made by FED to the First National Bank.

Answers

Here are the effects of a discount loan of $100 made by the Fed to the First National Bank:

The First National Bank's reserves increase by $100.

The First National Bank's lending capacity increases by $100.

The money supply increases by $100.

The interest rate on loans may fall, as banks have more funds to lend.

The economy may grow, as businesses have more access to credit.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each effect:

Increase in reserves: When the Fed makes a discount loan, it credits the bank's account with the amount of the loan. This increase in reserves allows the bank to make more loans.

Increase in lending capacity: The amount of loans that a bank can make is limited by its reserves. When the bank's reserves increase, its lending capacity also increases.

Increase in money supply: When a bank makes a loan, it creates new money. This is because the loan creates a deposit in the borrower's bank account. The borrower then uses this deposit to make purchases, which creates new money in the hands of the seller.

Fall in interest rates: When banks have more funds to lend, they may be willing to lend at lower interest rates. This is because they are more likely to be able to find borrowers who are willing to pay the lower interest rate.

Economic growth: When businesses have more access to credit, they are more likely to invest and hire new workers. This can lead to economic growth.

It is important to note that these are just the immediate effects of a discount loan. The long-term effects may be different, depending on how the loan is used and how the economy responds.

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A company's current financial position would best be evaluated
using the:
a. balance sheet.
b. income statement.
c. statement of cash flows.

Answers

The best way to evaluate a company's current financial position is by using the balance sheet.  The option A is correct answer.

The balance sheet provides a snapshot of the company's assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity at a specific point in time. It shows what the company owns, what it owes, and the net worth of the business.

By analyzing the balance sheet, stakeholders can assess the company's liquidity, solvency, and overall financial health. It helps in understanding the company's ability to meet its short-term and long-term obligations, assess its working capital position, and evaluate its capital structure.

The balance sheet consists of three main sections: assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity. The assets section lists the company's current and non-current assets, including cash, accounts receivable, inventory, property, plant, and equipment.

Liabilities represent the company's current and long-term debts, such as accounts payable, loans, and bonds. Shareholders' equity shows the residual interest in the company's assets after deducting liabilities and reflects the shareholders' ownership stake.

By comparing the different components of the balance sheet, investors, creditors, and other stakeholders can gain insights into the company's financial stability and evaluate its ability to generate future profits and cash flows. So, the correct answer is option A.

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Which holds the largest amount of corporate equities in the united states?

Answers

The largest amount of corporate equities in the United States is held by pension funds, mutual funds, and insurance companies.

These types of institutional investors are referred to as "buy-side" investors, as they purchase securities for the purpose of holding them rather than trading them for a profit.Answer more than 100 words:Pension funds are the largest institutional investors in the United States, holding over $8 trillion in assets. They invest in corporate equities as a way to earn returns that can be used to fund future pension liabilities. Mutual funds are another type of institutional investor that invests in corporate equities. They pool money from individual investors and use it to purchase a diversified portfolio of stocks.Insurance companies also hold a significant amount of corporate equities. They invest in stocks as a way to earn returns that can be used to pay out claims to policyholders. Other types of institutional investors that invest in corporate equities include endowments, foundations, and sovereign wealth funds. In contrast, "sell-side" investors, such as investment banks and broker-dealers, facilitate trades between buyers and sellers of securities but do not typically hold them for the long term.To sum up, pension funds, mutual funds, and insurance companies hold the largest amount of corporate equities in the United States.

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