Is 343060 divisible by 8?

Answer:

5%

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 2000000 people out of town and 4000000 people in total.

Solution for 2000000 is what percent of 40000000:

2000000:40000000*100 =

(2000000*100):40000000 =  

200000000:40000000 = 5

Now we have: 2000000 is what percent of 40000000 = 5  

Question: 2000000 is what percent of 40000000?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 40000000 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with x

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that 100%= 40000000.

Step 4: In the same vein, x%=2000000.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

100%=40000000(1).

x%=2000000(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS

(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

100%/x%=40000000/2000000

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides.

⇒ x=5%

Therefore, 2000000 is 5% of 40000000.

I hope that answers your question and plz mark me brainliest!

Answer:

  ∠W = 81°

Step-by-step explanation:

Triangle OGD is isosceles, so angle OGD has the same measure as angle ODG, 17°.

Triangle OGF is isosceles, so angle OGF has the same measure as angle OFG, 49°.

Angle DGF is the difference between angle OGF and angle OGD:

  ∠DGF = 49° -17° = 32°

External angle W is equal to the sum of remote internal angles DGF and OFG:

  ∠W = 32° +49°

  ∠W = 81°

Answer:

f(-3)=3

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that f(x)=-2x-3. In order to find f(-3), we simply need to substitute x with -3.

Thus, we have:

=-2(-3)-3

=6-3

=3

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=-2x-3

Let x=-3

f(-3)= -2(-3) -3

     = 6-3

    = 3

Answer:

(b)

Step-by-step explanation:

You can clearly see that putting each factor equal to 0 , we get -6 , -2 , 3

Answer:

49.97% probability of getting one child of each sex

Step-by-step explanation:

For each children, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are a boy, or they are a girl. The sex of a children is independent of other children, so we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

The probability that a couple’s first child is a boy is 0.512.

This means that [tex]p = 0.512[/tex]

The will have two children:

This means that [tex]n = 2[/tex]

(a) What is the probability of getting one child of each sex?

This is P(X = 1).

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{2,1}.(0.512)^{1}.(0.488)^{1} = 0.4997[/tex]

49.97% probability of getting one child of each sex

Solution,

Diameter=16.8 cm

Radius=16.8/2=8.4 cm

Area of circle=pi r^2

= 3.142*(8.4)^2

=3.142*70.56

=221.69952 cm^2

hope it helps

Good luck on your assignment

Answer:

the prime factorization of 18 is 2 times 3 and 1 time two

Step-by-step explanation:

Factorization refers to the process by which we decompose a number in its prime factors, in other words, we express the number as a multiplication of prime numbers.

In this case we have the number 18:

18= 9 x 2, however, 9 is not a prime number so we are going to factor the 9.

18= 3 x 3 x 2.

Now we see that all our factors are prime and thus this is the factorization of 18.

Thus, the prime factorization of 18 is 2 times 3 and 1 time two

Answer:

A

enginuity2020

Answer:

41.41°  

Step-by-step explanation:

In ∆ABC below, the legs are 4 and the base is 6.

So, the legs are ⅔ the length of the base.

In ∆CBD,

cosB = BD/BC = 3/4 = 0.75

B = arccos 0.75 = 41.41°

The base angles are each 41.41°

The measure should be 41.41°  

Since In ∆ABC , the legs should be 4 and the base should be 6.

Now

the legs are two-third the length of the base.

Also,

In ∆CBD,

cosB [tex]= BD\div BC = 3\div 4 = 0.75[/tex]

So,

B = arccos 0.75 = 41.41°

Therefore, we can concluded that The base angles are each 41.41°

Learn more about length here: https://brainly.com/question/3385843

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

1+1= 2 + -2=0 + 3 = 3

Answer:

[tex]3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](1 + 1 -2 +3)[/tex]

[tex]1+1-2+3[/tex]

[tex]2+1[/tex]

[tex]=3[/tex]

Answer:

The total amount in 7 years is: $958.62

Step-by-step explanation:

Recall the formula for compound interest:

[tex]A=P\,(1+\frac{r}{n} )^{n\,t}[/tex]

where:

A is the Accrued value (total in the account including accumulated interest), and in our case the unknown.

P is the Principal (amount initially deposited), and in our case $700.

r is the annual percent rate (but in decimal form) in our case 0.045

n is the number of compoundings done per year, and in our case 12 since it is compounded monthly

t is the time in years of the deposit.

Then the formula becomes:

[tex]A=P\,(1+\frac{r}{n} )^{n\,t}\\A=700\,(1+\frac{0.045}{12} )^{12\,*\,7}\\A=958.61657[/tex]

which can be rounded to the cents: $958.62

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 6 CD

P( song from 6th ) = number of CD's that are 6th/ total

                                = 1/6

Answer:

The probability that the average length of a randomly selected bundle of steel rods is between 155.6-cm and 156.2-cm

P(155.6 < x⁻ < 156.2) = 0.174 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Given sample size 'n' = 11 steel rods

Mean of the Population = 155.1 cm

Standard deviation of the Population = 2.2 cm

Given x⁻ be the random variable of Normal distribution

Let x₁⁻ =  155.6 cm

[tex]Z_{1} = \frac{x^{-} _{1}-mean }{\frac{S.D}{\sqrt{n} } } = \frac{155.6-155.1}{\frac{2.2}{\sqrt{11} } } = 0.7541[/tex]

Let  x₂⁻ =  156.2 cm

[tex]Z_{2} = \frac{x^{-} _{2}-mean }{\frac{S.D}{\sqrt{n} } } = \frac{156.2-155.1}{\frac{2.2}{\sqrt{11} } } = 1.659[/tex]

The probability that the average length of a randomly selected bundle of steel rods is between 155.6-cm and 156.2-cm.

P(x⁻₁ < x⁻ <x⁻₂) = P(Z₁ < Z <Z₂)

                       = P(Z <Z₂) - P(Z<Z₁)

                      = 0.5 +A(1.629) - (0.5 +A(0.7541)

                      = A(1.629) - A(0.7541)

                      = 0.4474 - 0.2734

                      = 0.174

Conclusion:-

The probability that the average length of a randomly selected bundle of steel rods is between 155.6-cm and 156.2-cm = 0.174

Answer:

D. It could have a minimum at (0, 4).

Step-by-step explanation:

ax2 + bx + c = 0  has no real solutions, which means it does not touch the x axis

Since it points upwards, the vertex must be above the x axis

It will have a minimum since it opens upwards

A. It could pass through the origin.   False

B. Its vertex could be at (–6, 0).   False

C. It could have a maximum at (–3, 2).   False

D. It could have a minimum at (0, 4).  True

Answer:

a) Experiment

b) Proportion of subjects infected. Quantitative

c) Null hypothesis failed to be rejected. P-value=0.101.

There is not enough evidence to support the claim that the RV infection rate of subjects using hand sanitizer is significantly lower.

d) The  95% confidence interval for the difference between proportions is (-0.223, 0.047).

As we can see, the value 0 (meaning no difference between the proportions) is included in the interval. This can be interpreted the sam wat that the hypothesis test: at 95% confidence, we can not assurre that there is significant difference between the proportions.

Step-by-step explanation:

a) This is an experiment, as the groups are designed by the researcher. The individuals are then asigned randomly to one of both groups.

b) The response variable is the proportion of subjects infected. This variable is quantitative, as is a sum of positive cases divided by the total amount of subjects in the group.

c) This is a hypothesis test for the difference between proportions.

The claim is that the RV infection rate of subjects using hand sanitizer is significantly lower.

Then, the null and alternative hypothesis are:

[tex]H_0: \pi_1-\pi_2=0\\\\H_a:\pi_1-\pi_2< 0[/tex]

The significance level is 0.05.

The sample 1 (HL+ group), of size n1=116 has a proportion of p1=0.4224.

[tex]p_1=X_1/n_1=49/116=0.4224[/tex]

The sample 2 (Control group), of size n2=96 has a proportion of p2=0.5104.

[tex]p_2=X_2/n_2=49/96=0.5104[/tex]

The difference between proportions is (p1-p2)=-0.088.

[tex]p_d=p_1-p_2=0.4224-0.5104=-0.088[/tex]

The pooled proportion, needed to calculate the standard error, is:

[tex]p=\dfrac{X_1+X_2}{n_1+n_2}=\dfrac{49+49}{116+96}=\dfrac{98}{212}=0.4623[/tex]

The estimated standard error of the difference between means is computed using the formula:

[tex]s_{p1-p2}=\sqrt{\dfrac{p(1-p)}{n_1}+\dfrac{p(1-p)}{n_2}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{0.4623*0.5377}{116}+\dfrac{0.4623*0.5377}{96}}\\\\\\s_{p1-p2}=\sqrt{0.0021+0.0026}=\sqrt{0.0047}=0.0688[/tex]

Then, we can calculate the z-statistic as:

[tex]z=\dfrac{p_d-(\pi_1-\pi_2)}{s_{p1-p2}}=\dfrac{-0.088-0}{0.0688}=\dfrac{-0.088}{0.0688}=-1.28[/tex]

This test is a left-tailed test, so the P-value for this test is calculated as (using a z-table):

[tex]P-value=P(z<-1.28)=0.101[/tex]

As the P-value (0.101) is bigger than the significance level (0.05), the effect is not significant.

The null hypothesis failed to be rejected.

There is not enough evidence to support the claim that the RV infection rate of subjects using hand sanitizer is significantly lower.

d) We want to calculate the bounds of a 95% confidence interval.

For a 95% CI, the critical value for z is z=1.96.

The estimated standard error of the difference between means is computed using the formula:

[tex]s_{p1-p2}=\sqrt{\dfrac{p(1-p)}{n_1}+\dfrac{p(1-p)}{n_2}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{0.4623*0.5377}{116}+\dfrac{0.4623*0.5377}{96}}\\\\\\s_{p1-p2}=\sqrt{0.0021+0.0026}=\sqrt{0.0047}=0.0688[/tex]

Then, the margin of error is:

[tex]MOE=z \cdot s_{p1-p2}=1.96\cdot 0.0688=0.1348[/tex]

Then, the lower and upper bounds of the confidence interval are:

[tex]LL=(p_1-p_2)-z\cdot s_{p1-p2} = -0.088-0.1348=-0.223\\\\UL=(p_1-p_2)+z\cdot s_{p1-p2}= -0.088+0.1348=0.047[/tex]

The  95% confidence interval for the difference between proportions is (-0.223, 0.047).

As we can see, the value 0 (meaning no difference between the proportions) is included in the interval. This can be interpreted the sam wat that the hypothesis test: at 95% confidence, we can not assurre that there is significant difference between the proportions.

Answer:

a idk

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It will take 1.47 hours for the horse and clown to collide

Step-by-step explanation:

They are driving toward each other, in opposite directions.

So to find their speed of approximation, we add their speeds.

19 mph + 15 mph = 34 mph.

This means that each hour, they are 34 miles closer.

How long it takes for them to find each other if they are 50 miles apart?

1 hour - 34 miles

x hours - 50 miles

[tex]34x = 50[/tex]

[tex]x = \frac{50}{34}[/tex]

[tex]x = 1.47[/tex]

It will take 1.47 hours for the horse and clown to collide

6y+4−3y−7=3(y−1)

Opening the bracket we notice that it will yield same thing for both sides of the equation.

There is only one way to solve the equation because it's clear that y = 0

So it's by opening the bracket.

So the value for y is equal to zero

Answer:

Boris height above the ground is 9.428m

Step-by-step explanation:

Boris height above the ground is given by the formula;

H = a cos(bt) + c

Now, we are told that,

a = -15m

b = 2.241 rad/s

t = 3s

c = 23m

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

H = -15 cos (2.241 * 3) + 23

H = -15 cos(6.723 rad) + 23

cos(6.723rad) = 0.9048

Thus,

H = (-15 × 0.9048) + 23

H = 9.428 m

So boris height above the ground is 9.428m

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.68

Explanation:

The question is incomplete without the tables. Find attached the table used in solving the question.

group 20-24 25-34 35-44 45-54 55-64 65-74 75+ respectively

Probability 0.004 0.006 0.14 0.29 0.32 0.17 respectively

This is a probability of complementary events. The sum of the two complementary events = 1

Hence, the probability of selecting a man with the disease that is not between the ages of 55 and 64 + the probability of selecting a man with the disease that is between the ages of 55 and 64 = 1

The probability of selecting a man with the disease is not between the ages of 55 and 64 = 1- probability of selecting a man with the disease is between the ages of 55 and 64

Let Pr(between 55 and 74) = probability of selecting a man with the disease is between the ages of 55 and 64

From the table, Pr(between 55 and 74) = 0.32

The probability of selecting a man with the disease is not between the ages of 55 and 64 = 1 - 0.32

The probability of selecting a man with the disease is not between the ages of 55 and 64 = 0.68

Answer:

if x=ky, where k is constant.

value of x

45/3=k3/3

15=k, constant is 15

value of x when y =6

x=ky

x=15(6)

x=80

Answer:

The amount to be paid for 2 kilograms of oranges is 3.0 TL.

Step-by-step explanation:

The total amount of oranges to be bought is, Q = 2 kilograms.

The cost of 1 kilogram of oranges is, C = 1.5 TL.

Compute the cost of 2 kilograms of oranges as follows:

Total cost = Q × C

                [tex]=2\times 1.5\ \text{TL}\\\\=3.0\ \text{TL}[/tex]

Thus, the amount to be paid for 2 kilograms of oranges is 3.0 TL.

Answer:

6.3 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

The perimeter of a parallelogram is given by

P = 2(l+w)

49.6 = 2 (18.5 +t)

Divide by 2

49.6/2 = 2/2 (18.5 +t)

24.8 = 18.5+t

Subtract 18.5

24.8-18.5 = t

6.3 = t

Answer:

80cm

Step-by-step explanation:

i worked it out like this

2x4=8

then that means

20x4=80

Answer:

80 is the answer

Answer:

1/2 h or 30 min

Step-by-step explanation:

2 h * 1/4 = 2/4 = 1/2 h or 30 min

Answer:

b) Dependent sample

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Sample size, n = 1400

The average sleep of the respondents in weekdays = 6.5 hours

The average sleep of the respondents in weekends = 7.2 hours

% with eight or more hours of sleep on​ weekdays = 20%

% with eight or more hours of sleep on​ weekends = 43%

Required: To Check if the samples on weekdays and weekends are independent or dependent.

When samples are independent, it means one sample does not influence the other and vice versa, while samples are said to be dependent if the outcome of one test influences the outcome of the other. The tests might be from a similar population or from various populations.

In this case, the sample gathered are from similar population because same sample is used for both weekdays and weekends. Therefore, we can say the sample is a paired sample.

The samples on weekdays and weekends are dependent since same people are used, also since sleep on weekdays and sleep on weekends may influence each other.

Answer:

Correct option: first one

"StartFraction P minus 2 l Over 2 EndFraction = w"

Step-by-step explanation:

First we start from the perimeter equation:

P = 2*l + 2*w

Then, we need to solve for w, so we need to isolate it.

The first step is subtracting 2*l from both sides of the equation:

P - 2*l = 2*w

Then, we divide both sides by 2:

w = (P - 2l) / 2

So the correct option is the first one:

"StartFraction P minus 2 l Over 2 EndFraction = w"

Answer:

Its the first one

Step-by-step explanation:

i got it right on edge

Answer:

Given diameter: r = d / 2 , Given area: r = √[A / (4 * π)] , Given volume: r = ³√[3 * V / (4 * π)] , Given surface to volume ratio: r = 3 / (A/V) .

Step-by-step explanation:

So, do that!

Answer:

36pi

Step-by-step explanation:

i already did it and it was correct.