In which of the following situations is an Australian FI exposed to a depreciation of the euro against the Australian dollar?
A. The FI holds €100 million in assets and €70 million in liabilities.
B. The FI holds €100 million in assets and €100 million in liabilities.
C. The FI holds €70 million in assets and €100 million in liabilities.
D. The FI does not hold any assets or liabilities in euros but considers doing so in the future

Answers

Answer 1

A. The FI holds €100 million in assets and €70 million in liabilities. An asset is generally any useful thing or something that holds value.

In this situation, the Australian FI holds more euro-denominated assets (€100 million) than euro-denominated liabilities (€70 million). If the euro were to depreciate against the Australian dollar, the value of the FI's euro-denominated assets would decrease more than the value of its euro-denominated liabilities. This would result in a net loss for the FI due to the depreciation of the euro against the Australian dollar.

The Australian FI is exposed to a depreciation of the euro against the Australian dollar in situation A.

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Related Questions

a good example of a firm deploying a global standardization strategy is: group of answer choices unilever ikea amazon mcdonald's

Answers

A good example of a firm deploying a global standardization strategy is McDonald's. McDonald's is the largest and most recognized fast-food chain globally.

It has successfully used the standardization strategy by maintaining the consistency of its products and services worldwide. McDonald's uses the same product recipes, production processes, and marketing strategies across all its outlets globally. Its standardization strategy enables it to offer uniform quality products, giving customers the same experience everywhere.

Additionally, the company's global standardization strategy helps it save on production, marketing, and distribution costs, which ultimately contributes to its profitability. McDonald's business model is replicable and has enabled it to expand to over 100 countries globally.

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Consider Alex with a VNM preference and utility function: u(x) = xa, 1 > a > 0. Alex's endowment income is x. Alex operates in an incomplete insurance market where in addition to the insurable income loss L, she also faces a possibility of an uninsurable income loss D. Indeed it is very unfortunate that Alex is always involved in an accident losing either L or D although both types of losses do not occur simultaneously. Furthermore, the magnitude of L (if it occurs) is as big as *. In other words, Alex operates in a two-state world where in each state she faces the risk of losing an amount either L or D where: 0 p> 0 before she experiences a certain type of loss i.e. if she buys an insurance cover she must pay a premium regardless of the type of state i. Denote Alex's income in state i by x₁, i = 1,2, and let state 1 denote the state when L occurs and state 2 denote the state when D occurs. Assuming that Alex's consumption in a certain state is her income in that state, set up Alex's maximization problem and show that (i) Alex always buys a positive amount of cover and that her optimal choice of q satisfies 0

Answers

Alex with a VNM preference and utility function: u(x) = xa, 1 > a > 0. Alex's endowment income is x.

Alex operates in an incomplete insurance market where in addition to the insurable income loss L, she also faces a possibility of an uninsurable income loss D. Indeed it is very unfortunate that Alex is always involved in an accident losing either L or D although both types of losses do not occur simultaneously. Furthermore, the magnitude of L (if it occurs) is as big as *.In a two-state world, Alex faces the risk of losing an amount either L or D where: 0 < p < 1 before she experiences a certain type of loss, i.e. if she buys an insurance cover she must pay a premium regardless of the type of state i. The state 1 is denoted as the state when L occurs, and state 2 denote the state when D occurs. Denote Alex's income in state i by x₁, i = 1,2, and let's say Alex's consumption in a certain state is her income in that state. The premium for insuring against the loss of L or D is q, which is assumed to be non-negative. Therefore, Alex's maximization problem is to choose an optimal q such that u(x - q) is maximized. We can set up Alex's maximization problem as follows:Maximize u(x - q) in both states subject to Alex's budget constraint: (1 - p)(x - q) + p(x - q - L) ≥ 0(1 - p)(x - q) + p(x - q - D) ≥ 0To show that Alex always buys a positive amount of cover and that her optimal choice of q satisfies 0 < q < x, we differentiate u(x - q) with respect to q to find the value of q at which the marginal utility of income lost due to L equals the marginal utility of income lost due to D. Then we can substitute the value of q into the budget constraint to show that Alex always buys a positive amount of cover and that her optimal choice of q satisfies 0 < q < x.Analyzing the above mentioned budget constraint, we can simplify it as follows:(1 - p)(x - q) ≥ - p(x - q - L)or (1 - p)(x - q) ≥ p(L - D)Let the right-hand side be β. Then(1 - p)(x - q) ≥ βwhich can be written asq ≤ x - β/(1 - p)Since β > 0, it follows that q < x. Therefore, Alex always buys a positive amount of cover.Furthermore, we have to differentiate u(x - q) with respect to q and set it equal to zero to obtain the value of q such that the marginal utility of income lost due to L equals the marginal utility of income lost due to D.The marginal utility of income lost due to L is given by -au(x - q - L)q=0 gives us a unique value of q such that the marginal utility of income lost due to L equals the marginal utility of income lost due to D. Hence, Alex always buys a positive amount of cover and that her optimal choice of q satisfies 0 < q < x.

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Consider the problem of a consumer who must choose between two types of goods, good 1 (x₁) and good 2 (x₂) costing respectively p₁ and p₂ per unit. He is endowed with an income m and has a utility function u defined by u(x₁, x₂) = √x₁ + x₂. 1. Show that the consumer's utility function is quasi-concave. 2. Write down the maximization problem of the consumer.

Answers

The consumer aims to choose x₁ and x₂ to maximize utility while staying within the budget constraint.

To show that the consumer's utility function is quasi-concave, we need to demonstrate that the utility function exhibits diminishing marginal rates of substitution (MRS).

Diminishing Marginal Rates of Substitution (MRS):

The MRS measures the rate at which a consumer is willing to substitute one good for another while keeping utility constant. In this case, the MRS is given by the partial derivative of the utility function with respect to good 1 (x₁) divided by the partial derivative with respect to good 2 (x₂):

MRS = (∂u/∂x₁) / (∂u/∂x₂)

Let's calculate the MRS:

∂u/∂x₁ = (1/2) * (x₁)^(-1/2)

∂u/∂x₂ = 1

Now we can find the MRS:

MRS = (∂u/∂x₁) / (∂u/∂x₂) = [(1/2) * (x₁)^(-1/2)] / 1 = (1/2) * (x₁)^(-1/2)

Since the MRS is positive and decreasing in x₁, it shows that the consumer's utility function is quasi-concave.

Maximization Problem:

The consumer's maximization problem is to choose the quantities of goods 1 and 2 that maximize their utility (u) subject to their budget constraint.

The budget constraint is given by:

p₁ * x₁ + p₂ * x₂ = m

The consumer's maximization problem can be written as:

Maximize u(x₁, x₂) = √x₁ + x₂

subject to p₁ * x₁ + p₂ * x₂ = m

The consumer aims to choose x₁ and x₂ to maximize utility while staying within the budget constraint.

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The following information relates to questions 6-8 Nichol Ltd is a medium-sized manufacturer of commercial coffee machines, supplying the hospitality industry in Australia. Nichol maintains a computer

Answers

One substantive procedure related to the existence assertion is a confirmation that inventory as staed in the journal is actually what is obtainable.

How to apply substantitve procedures

To apply substantive procedures such as the one requiested where we are to use an auditing software, it is imperative that the auditor confirms that what the figures in the book are actually the same as what is found in the company's account.

This means that the auditor should ensure that the total value at hand, the dates and product descriptions are the same as what is obtainable on the shelfs and in the company's accounts.

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Complete Question:

The following information relates to questions 6-8 Nichol Ltd is a medium-sized manufacturer of commercial coffee machines, supplying the hospitality industry in Australia. Nichol maintains a computerised inventory system which includes the following fields for each of their product lines: Stock code (alpha-numeric field); Stock location (alphabetical field); Product description (alphabetical field): Quantity on hand (numeric field); Unit cost (numeric field); Total value on hand (calculated field); Date of last sale (date field: dd/mm/yyyy): Year to date sales quantity (numeric field): Last year's year to date sales quantity (numeric field). D Question 6 2 pts Using generalised auditing software in relation to the inventory of Nichol describe one substantive procedure related to the existence assertion.

How to calculate the value range using the discounted cash flow
(DCF) approach?

Answers

The value range can be calculated using the discounted cash flow (DCF) approach by discounting projected future cash flows to their present values and considering various scenarios and assumptions.

To calculate the value range using DCF, we start by estimating the future cash flows expected from the investment or project. This includes estimating revenue, expenses, and free cash flows over a specific time horizon. These projections are typically based on factors such as market conditions, industry trends, and historical performance.

Next, we determine an appropriate discount rate, often the weighted average cost of capital (WACC), which reflects the risk and opportunity cost of the investment. The discount rate accounts for the time value of money and adjusts the future cash flows to their present value.

Using the projected cash flows and the discount rate, we apply the DCF formula to calculate the present value of the expected future cash flows. This involves discounting each cash flow by dividing it by (1 + discount rate)^n, where n represents the period in which the cash flow occurs.

By varying the assumptions and inputs such as growth rates, discount rates, and terminal values, we can generate a range of possible outcomes. This range helps capture the uncertainty and risk associated with the investment.

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Sarah Corporation is considering a new capital investment on the
Island. The project is expected to last 6 years. Their investment
of $2,000,000 will consist of an asset in a CCA class with rate of
25

Answers

For the Sarah Corporation, the NPV of the project is $1,038,464.65.

The first step to find the NPV is to calculate the annual cash flows. Let's calculate the annual cash inflows:

Year 1:

Revenue = $390,000

Expenses = $100,000

Tax = $87,000 (30% of the net income of $290,000)

Net Income = $203,000

Year 2-6:

Revenue = $450,000

Expenses = $100,000

Tax = $102,000 (30% of the net income of $340,000)

Net Income = $248,000

Annual cash flow:

Year 1:

Net income = $203,000

Add back depreciation ($2,000,000 × 25%) = $500,000

Add back working capital = $45,000

Cash flow = $748,000

Years 2-6:

Net income = $248,000

Add back depreciation ($2,000,000 × 25%) = $500,000

Cash flow = $748,000

Adding all the cash flows, we get:

Present Value = $2,000,000 (Initial investment)- $375,000 (Depreciation)- $45,000 (Working capital)

Total Present Value = $1,580,000

Calculating the Net Present Value:

Present value of annual cash inflows = $748,000 (Year 1) + ($748,000 ÷ 1.14^1) + ($748,000 ÷ 1.14^2) + ($748,000 ÷ 1.14^3) + ($748,000 ÷ 1.14^4) + ($748,000 ÷ 1.14^5) = $2,618,464.65

Net Present Value = Present Value of cash inflows - Total Present Value= $2,618,464.65 - $1,580,000= $1,038,464.65

Therefore, the NPV of the project is $1,038,464.65.

Note: The question is incomplete. The complete question probably is: Sarah Corporation is considering a new capital investment on the Island. The project is expected to last 6 years. Their investment of $2,000,000 will consist of an asset in a CCA class with rate of 25% subject to the half year rule. This asset will be sold at the end of the project for 60% of the original cost. The project will require an extra $45,000 in working capital this amount will be recovered at the end of the project. Expenses will be $100,000 per year and revenues will be $390,000 in year 1 followed by $450,000 for the rest of the project. Find the NPV if Sarah Corporation has a 30% tax rate and a cost of capital of 14%.

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a terminated employee that has exercised the conversion privilege is able to convert

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A terminated employee that has exercised the conversion privilege is able to convert their group health insurance coverage to an individual policy.

When an employee is terminated or leaves a job, they may lose access to the group health insurance coverage provided by their employer. However, many group health insurance plans offer a conversion privilege, which allows terminated employees to convert their group coverage into an individual policy.

The conversion privilege enables the terminated employee to continue their health insurance coverage by converting it to an individual policy with the same or similar coverage benefits. This option provides a seamless transition from the group plan to an individual plan, allowing the employee to maintain their health insurance coverage without any gaps in coverage.

The conversion privilege typically comes with certain conditions, such as a specific timeframe within which the conversion must be requested and the payment of premiums at individual rates. The converted individual policy may have different terms and premiums compared to the group coverage.

A terminated employee who exercises the conversion privilege is able to convert their group health insurance coverage to an individual policy. This option allows the employee to continue their health insurance coverage after leaving their job and helps ensure continuous access to healthcare benefits.

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Final answer:

The conversion privilege allows a terminated employee to convert their group insurance policy into an individual policy, thus preserving their insurance coverage despite the end of employment.

Explanation:

A terminated employee who has exercised the conversion privilege is essentially exercising their right to convert their group insurance policy, typically a life or health insurance, into an individual insurance policy. This means that, despite no longer being employed and eligible for group benefits, they can still access insurance coverage. For instance, an employee could convert their group life insurance policy into an individual one upon termination, thereby maintaining their coverage. It's important for employees to understand their conversion rights in different policies, as this can provide significant benefits and peace of mind in certain life changes and events.

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a company issued 70 shares of $100 par value common stock for $8,000 cash. the total amount of paid-in capital is: multiple choice $8,000. $700. $7,000. $1,000. $100.

Answers

A company issued 70 shares of$ 100 par value common stock for$ 8,000 cash. The total quantum of paid- in capital is$ 7,000. thus, the correct option is C.$ 7,000.

What's Paid- in capital?

Paid- in capital is the quantum of plutocrat a company receives from investors when they buy stock. It's the capital that shareholders give to a company in exchange for shares of power. Paid- in capital can also be appertained to as contributed capital, paid- up capital, or capital stock.

How to calculate paid- in capital?

The formula to calculate paid- in capital is as follows

Paid- in Capital = Par Value of Stock x Number of Shares Issued fresh Paid- in Capital

Where, Par value of stock is the face value of a share of stock as determined by the company.

Number of shares issued is the total number of shares a company has issued.

Additional Donated- in Capital is the quantum of capital in excess of par value that's paid by investors for shares of stock.

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ABC banks liabilities are only deposits, below is some financial data
total deposits 3,000,000
demand deposits 300,000
Earning Assets 3,100,000
Cash 80,000
interest income 341,000
net interest income 260,000
reserve for loan losses 62,000

Answers

ABC bank's liabilities are only deposits.

Its total deposits equal $3,000,000 with demand deposits at $300,000.

The bank's earning assets amount to $3,100,000, whereas cash equals $80,000.

Interest income for the bank is $341,000, while the net interest income amounts to $260,000,

and the reserve for loan losses is $62,000.

The given data shows that ABC bank's assets (Earning Assets + Cash) amount to $3,180,000,

while its liabilities (Total Deposits) amount to $3,000,000.

The difference between these two, which is $180,000, represents the bank's equity, which is calculated as follows: Equity = Assets - Liabilities

Equity = $3,180,000 - $3,000,000

Equity = $180,000

Therefore, the equity of ABC bank is $180,000.

However, the bank's net interest income of $260,000 and reserve for loan losses of $62,000 are not considered in the equity. Thus, the equity is not the same as the amount of money the bank can give to its shareholders. In this case, the bank can distribute the $260,000 net interest income to shareholders in the form of dividends if they decide to do so.

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Janice will need to pay $200 at the end of every month for the next 12 months, except for the payment of the 5th month. What is the present value, assuming a rate of 4%, compounded semi-annually? A. $2,160.06 В. $2,152.48 C. $2,254.09 D. $2,348.97

Answers

To calculate the present value of the payments, we can use the formula for the present value of an ordinary annuity:

PV = PMT × [1 - (1 + r/n)^(-nt)] / (r/n)

Where: PV = Present value

PMT = Payment amount

r = Interest rate

n = Number of compounding periods per year

t = Number of years

Given information: PMT = $200

r = 4% (expressed as a decimal, 0.04)

n = 2 (compounded semi-annually)

t = 12 months / 12 = 1 year

Substituting the values into the formula:

PV = $200 × [1 - (1 + 0.04/2)^(-2 × 1)] / (0.04/2)

Simplifying the expression:

PV = $200 × [1 - (1.02)^(-2)] / 0.02

PV = $200 × (1 - 0.9604) / 0.02

PV = $200 × 0.0396 / 0.02

PV = $3.96

Therefore, the present value of the payments is $3.96. None of the given answer choices match this amount. It's possible that there might be an error in the provided answer choices.

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Stock X has an expected return of 10.7% and a beta of 0.9. Stock Y has an expected return of 17.9% and a beta of 2.4. Stock Z has an expected return of 13.5% and a beta of 1.5. The market risk premium is 7% and the risk-free rate is 3%. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Stock X is underpriced, Stock Y is overpriced, Stock Z is overpriced.
B. Stock X is fairly priced, Stock Y is underpriced, Stock Z is underpriced.
C. Stock X is over priced, Stock Y is overpriced, Stock Z is underpriced.
D. Stock X is fairily priced, Stock Y is fairly priced, Stock Z is overpriced.
E. Stock X is underpriced, Stock Y is overpriced, Stock Z is fairly priced.

Answers

Answer:

The correct statement is:

E. Stock X is fairly priced, Stock Y is overpriced, Stock Z is fairly priced.

Explanation:

This is determined by comparing the expected returns of the stocks with their respective required returns based on the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM).

Calculating the required returns using the CAPM formula, we find that:

- Stock X has an expected return of 10.7%, which is higher than the required return of 9.3%. Therefore, Stock X is fairly priced.

- Stock Y has an expected return of 17.9%, which is lower than the required return of 19.8%. Therefore, Stock Y is overpriced.

- Stock Z has an expected return of 13.5%, which is equal to the required return of 13.5%. Therefore, Stock Z is fairly priced.

Based on these comparisons, we can conclude that Stock X and Stock Z are fairly priced, while Stock Y is overpriced.

The COVID pandemic helped us to move from face-to-face to online leaning. 2.1 Choose the best Learning Management Systems and describe how you will use it for teaching and learning purposes (e.g. Moodle, Edmodo, Schoology, etc.) Artificial Intelligence, Simulations, Nano technology, etc.).

Answers

The COVID pandemic forced the world into an abrupt shift from face-to-face to online learning. While most schools, universities and other institutions were already using some form of a learning management system (LMS), the pandemic accelerated the adoption of more robust and comprehensive LMS.

A good LMS should enable learning to happen even when students are not physically present in the classroom. The LMS should facilitate synchronous and asynchronous learning and should be easily accessible from different devices such as desktop computers, laptops, tablets, and smartphones. It should also offer secure and reliable connectivity, collaboration tools, and assessment features. The best Learning Management Systems are discussed below: Moodle - Moodle is a free and open-source LMS that is widely used in schools, universities, and other educational institutions. Moodle offers a range of features such as grading, course management, reporting, and student collaboration.

Moodle can be customized to fit the specific needs of the teacher or institution. Edmodo - Edmodo is a social learning platform designed for K-12 schools and teachers. It offers a range of features such as course management, grading, and discussion forums. Edmodo also allows teachers to create and share content with their students, and to connect with other teachers. Schoology - Schoology is a cloud-based LMS that is designed for K-12 schools and higher education institutions. Schoology offers a range of features such as course management, assessment, and analytics. Schoology also allows teachers to create and share content with their students, and to connect with other teachers. The LMS of choice will depend on the specific needs of the teacher or institution.  

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Must a contract always be in writing to be enforceable?

Answers

While not all contracts need to be in writing to be enforceable, it is advisable to have important agreements documented in writing to ensure clarity, protect the interests of all parties, and provide stronger evidence in case of disputes.

In general, a contract does not always have to be in writing to be enforceable. Contracts can be formed orally or through conduct, and these types of agreements are known as "oral contracts" or "implied contracts." However, certain types of contracts are required to be in writing to be enforceable under what is known as the "Statute of Frauds."

The Statute of Frauds varies by jurisdiction but typically includes contracts for the sale of real estate, contracts that cannot be performed within one year, contracts for the sale of goods over a certain value, and agreements to pay someone else's debts. These types of contracts must be in writing and signed by the parties involved to be enforceable.

While oral contracts and implied contracts are generally enforceable, they can be more difficult to prove in court due to the lack of written documentation.

Written contracts offer the advantage of clarity, providing a clear record of the terms and conditions agreed upon by the parties. They can help prevent misunderstandings and provide stronger evidence in case of disputes.

It is generally recommended to have important agreements in writing to protect the interests of all parties involved. Having a written contract helps establish the rights and obligations of each party, ensures clarity, and can provide legal protection in case of disagreements or breaches of contract.

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Assume an investor who creates a portfolio by writing a European Call option and a European Put option on the same underlying stock. The options have the same exercise price (€50) and remaining time to maturity. The options are equally expensive, i.e. the premia equal each €5. For sake of convenience neglect the time value of money (implying that the option premia paid for the options stay the same prior to expiration and at the expiration date). Which statement is TRUE?
O A) This option strategy is called a straddle.
O B) The portfolio profit (taking into account the premia) at the expiration date is equal to €0 when the stock price equals the strike price.
O C) The portfolio profit (taking into account the premia) at the expiration date is equal to €10 when the stock price equals the strike price.
O D) Using this option strategy the investor speculates on sharp falls (or rises) in the underlying stock price far away from the exercise price

Answers

The correct statement is B) The portfolio profit (taking into account the premia) at the expiration date is equal to €0 when the stock price equals the strike price.

Assume an investor who creates a portfolio by writing a European Call option and a European Put option on the same underlying stock. The options have the same exercise price (€50) and remaining time to maturity. The options are equally expensive, i.e. the premia equal each €5. For the sake of convenience, neglect the time value of money (implying that the option premia paid for the options stay the same prior to expiration and at the expiration date). Which statement is TRUE?

The correct statement is:

B) The portfolio profit (taking into account the premia) at the expiration date is equal to €0 when the stock price equals the strike price.

Here's the detailed explanation:

In this scenario, the investor has created a portfolio by writing a European Call option and a European Put option on the same underlying stock. This strategy is known as a straddle. A straddle involves buying or writing both a call and a put option with the same strike price and expiration date.

When the options have the same exercise price (€50) and remaining time to maturity, and the options are equally expensive with premia of €5 each, the investor will collect a premium for both the Call and Put options. By writing the options, the investor receives the premiums upfront.

Option B states that the portfolio profit (taking into account the premia) at the expiration date is equal to €0 when the stock price equals the strike price. This statement is true because when the stock price is exactly equal to the strike price at expiration, both the Call and Put options will expire worthless. The investor keeps the premiums received, which offsets any potential loss or gain from the options.

Option A refers to the strategy being a straddle, which is correct. Option C incorrectly states that the portfolio profit at expiration is equal to €10 when the stock price equals the strike price. Option D incorrectly suggests that the investor speculates on sharp falls (or rises) in the underlying stock price far away from the exercise price.

Therefore, the correct statement is B) The portfolio profit (taking into account the premia) at the expiration date is equal to €0 when the stock price equals the strike price.

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Target Case
Question: What are the main disadvantages of Target's
distribution strategy? Please discuss at least 3
approaches to mitigate the difficulties? [8 Marks]
URGENT: 15 mins to submit my tes

Answers

Target is a company that operates in the retail industry and has over the years adopted an omnichannel distribution strategy. Target has an online store, mobile application, as well as brick and mortar stores in various locations to reach a broad customer base. Target has gained popularity for offering high-quality products at a reasonable price to customers. However, despite the company's best efforts, the omnichannel distribution strategy comes with its disadvantages.

Disadvantages of Target's distribution strategy:

Lack of personalized experience: Target uses a combination of online and in-store shopping experiences for customers. However, this strategy lacks personalization, which can negatively affect the customer experience. Customers want to feel like they are appreciated and not treated like just another number. This can lead to a loss of customer loyalty and, ultimately, sales.

High costs: The omnichannel strategy is costly to implement, especially for retailers with physical stores. The integration of different sales channels is also expensive, and retailers may have to hire experts to assist with the transition process. These costs can eat into the retailer's profit margins and reduce the overall profitability.

Lack of uniformity: Target's omnichannel strategy may lead to inconsistencies in the products' quality and price. This can occur when customers view a product online and then buy it in-store, only to find that it's of a lower quality. This inconsistency can lead to customer dissatisfaction and loss of sales.Approaches to mitigate the difficulties

The following are some of the ways that Target can mitigate the disadvantages of the omnichannel distribution strategy:

Offering personalized recommendations: Target can use artificial intelligence to track customers' purchases and recommend products based on their shopping habits. This will provide a personalized shopping experience that customers crave. Customers will feel appreciated and valued, leading to increased sales.

Rewards program: Target can introduce a rewards program that rewards customers for their loyalty. The rewards can be in the form of discounts, free shipping, or exclusive offers, among others. This will incentivize customers to keep coming back, leading to increased sales.

Standardizing products: Target can standardize the products offered online and in-store. This will ensure that customers get the same quality of products irrespective of the purchase channel.

In conclusion, Target's omnichannel distribution strategy has its advantages and disadvantages. While the approach has been successful in reaching a broad customer base, it's costly to implement and lacks personalization. However, Target can mitigate these difficulties by offering personalized recommendations, introducing a rewards program, and standardizing products. These approaches will help Target improve its customer experience and increase sales.

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we import a foreign configuration in a raid array, if:

Answers

We import a foreign configuration in a RAID array if we encounter a situation where the RAID controller detects a configuration that does not match its own or has been imported from another system.

In a RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) array, the configuration refers to the specific arrangement and settings of the disks within the array. Each RAID controller has its own specific configuration that it expects to find when initializing the array. However, there are situations where a foreign configuration is detected, indicating that the array's configuration does not match what the controller expects.

Importing a foreign configuration is necessary to ensure that the RAID array is correctly recognized and accessible by the controller. This process involves the RAID controller identifying the foreign configuration and then importing it into its own configuration. This allows the controller to properly manage the array and ensure data integrity.

Importing a foreign configuration can be triggered by various scenarios, such as replacing a failed RAID controller, moving disks from one system to another, or encountering a configuration mismatch due to changes in the RAID controller settings.

Importing a foreign configuration in a RAID array is required when the RAID controller detects a configuration that does not match its own. This process ensures that the RAID array is correctly recognized and accessible by the controller, allowing for proper management and data integrity within the array.

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Determine the amount of long-term debt for ABC Co. using the following balance sheet information: cash balance of $24,401, accounts payable of $95,387, common stock of $400,803, retained earnings of $501,427, inventory of $205,378, other assets equal to $76,013, net plant and equipment of $706,024, short-term notes payable of $30,000, and accounts receivable of $142,667. Long-Term Debt $

Answers

Based on the provided balance sheet information, ABC Co.'s long-term debt can be calculated by subtracting the sum of its current liabilities (accounts payable and short-term notes payable) from its total liabilities and equity. The long-term debt for ABC Co. is $529,400.

To determine the amount of long-term debt, we need to calculate the total liabilities first. The total liabilities can be obtained by summing up the current liabilities (accounts payable and short-term notes payable) and the long-term debt. Since the balance sheet information does not provide a specific value for long-term debt, we can calculate it by subtracting the sum of current liabilities from the total liabilities and equity.

Total liabilities = Accounts payable + Short-term notes payable + Long-term debt

Using the provided information:

Total liabilities = $95,387 + $30,000 + Long-term debt

Total liabilities and equity = Total assets = Cash + Accounts receivable + Inventory + Net plant and equipment + Other assets + Common stock + Retained earnings

From the given balance sheet information, we have:

Total assets = $24,401 + $142,667 + $205,378 + $706,024 + $76,013 + $400,803 + $501,427

Equating the total liabilities and equity to the total assets, we can solve for the long-term debt:

Total liabilities + Common stock + Retained earnings = Total assets

$95,387 + $30,000 + Long-term debt + $400,803 + $501,427 = $24,401 + $142,667 + $205,378 + $706,024 + $76,013 + $400,803 + $501,427

Simplifying the equation, we find:

Long-term debt = $529,400

Therefore, the long-term debt for ABC Co. is $529,400.

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Blank Slate Inc produces two types of tablet computers: a basic version and a high-end version. During January the following data are available:

Basic High-end

Actual units sold 10,000 40,000

Budgeted sales 8,820 33,180

Actual selling price $700 $900

Budgeted selling price $710 $930

Budgeted market share 25% 24%

Actual market share 20% 25%

Budget cont. margin /unit $275 $375

Required:

Determine the following:

a) Sales-mix and sales-quantity variances

b) Market-share and market-size variances

Answers

The sales mix variance is favorable and the sales quantity variance is unfavorable. The market-share variance is unfavorable and the market-size variance is unfavorable.

a) The sales mix and sales quantity variances are as follows:

Selling price variance = (Actual selling price - Budgeted selling price) × Actual units sold a.

Sales-mix variance = [(Actual sales mix % - Budgeted sales mix %) × Budgeted unit sales] × Budgeted contribution margin/unit b.

Sales-quantity variance = (Actual units sold - Budgeted unit sales) × Budgeted contribution margin/unit Where;

Budgeted sales mix %

= [(Budgeted sales of Basic version / Total budgeted sales) × 100%]

= [(8820 / 41685) × 100%]

= 21.15%Actual sales mix %

= [(Actual sales of Basic version / Total actual sales) × 100%]

= [(10000 / 50000) × 100%]

= 20%Variance in selling price of Basic version

= ($700 - $710) × 10000 = $-10,000 Favorable variance in selling price of High-end version

= ($900 - $930) × 40000 = $-1,200,000 Favorable sales-mix variance

= [(20% - 21.15%) × 41685] × $275

= $-77190.38 Favorable sales-quantity variance

= (10000 - 8820) × $275 = $32,175 b) The market share and market size variances are as follows:

Market-share variance

= (Actual market share % - Budgeted market share %) × Total units sold × Budgeted contribution margin/unit Market-size variance

= (Actual unit sales - Budgeted unit sales) × Budgeted selling price Where;

Total units sold = 10,000 + 40,000

= 50,000 Budgeted market share % of Basic version

= (8820 / 41685) × 100% = 21.15%Actual market share % of Basic version

= (10000 / 50000) × 100%

= 20%Favorable market-share variance

= (20% - 24%) × 50,000 × $325

= $- market-size variance

= (50,000 - 42,000) × $820

= $-6,560,000

Thus, the sales mix variance is favorable and the sales quantity variance is unfavorable. The market-share variance is unfavorable and the market-size variance is unfavorable.

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Auction design Suppose an auctioneer wants to sell a single indivisible item to two interested bidders. Bidder I has a valuation v₁ between zero and one for the item, and bidder II has a valuation v₂ between zero and one for the item. These valuations are private information. That is, both players know their own valuation for the item, but not the valuation of the other bidder. Now imagine that the auction is executed along the following lines. Both bidders simultaneously hand in a sealed bid, let us say b₁ and b₂. The bidder with the highest bid gets the item (in case of a draw, we allocate the item randomly). However, contrary to the traditional auction, the highest bidder does not pay his own bid, but the bid of the other bidder, sometimes called the second price. This seemingly peculiar auction format was invented by William Vickrey in 1961. For the invention of this simple but effective auction mechanism he was awarded the Nobel prize in Economics, together with James Mirrlees, in 1996. Sadly enough he died three days after the public announcement of his Nobel laureate, so he was never able to actually collect the prize. Exercise j) Imagine you are bidder II. Bidder I has made a sealed bid of b₁. William Vickrey 1914-1996 i) Suppose that b₁ ≤ v₂. Argue that bidding b₂ =V₂ is a best response. ii) Suppose that b₁ >v₂. Argue that also in this case bidding b₂ =V₂ is a best response. iii) Argue that truthful bidding is a dominant strategy. iv) Argue that, when both bidders bid truthfully, the resulting allocation is efficient.

Answers

i) The best response for bidder II if bidder I have made a sealed bid of b₁ and b₁ ≤ v₂ is to bid b₂ = v₂.

ii) The best response for bidder II if bidder I have made a sealed bid of b₁ and b₁ > v₂ is still to bid b₂ = v₂.

iii) Truthful bidding is a dominant strategy for both bidders.

iv) The allocation resulting from truthful bidding is efficient.

i) If bidder I bid less than or equal to bidder II's true valuation for the item (b₁ ≤ v₂), then bidder II's goal is to win the auction while minimizing the price paid. Bidding anything less than their true valuation would result in a lower chance of winning the auction, and bidding anything higher would result in a higher price paid than necessary. Therefore, the best response is to bid b₂ = v₂.

ii) If bidder I bid more than bidder II's true valuation for the item (b₁ > v₂), then bidder II knows that they cannot win the auction without overpaying. Bidding their true valuation or higher would result in overpaying for the item, and bidding lower would result in losing the auction. Therefore, the best response is still to bid b₂ = v₂.

iii) Truthful bidding is a dominant strategy for both bidders because it is always the best response, regardless of the other bidder's bid. If bidder I bid less than bidder II's true valuation, then bidding truthfully will either result in bidder II winning the auction at a lower price, or losing the auction and paying nothing. If bidder I bid more than bidder II's true valuation, then bidding truthfully will result in bidder II losing the auction and paying nothing. In both cases, bidding truthfully is the best response.

iv) The allocation resulting from truthful bidding is efficient because the item is allocated to the bidder with the highest valuation, and the price paid is equal to the second-highest valuation. This means that the item is allocated to the bidder with the highest willingness to pay for it, and at the lowest price that the bidder would have been willing to pay. This is the most efficient allocation possible, as it maximizes both the seller's revenue and the buyer's surplus.

In this auction format, bidder II's best response is to bid their true valuation for the item, regardless of the other bidder's bid. Truthful bidding is a dominant strategy for both bidders, and the resulting allocation is efficient. This auction format, known as a second-price sealed-bid auction or a Vickrey auction, is a simple and effective mechanism for selling indivisible items and was recognized by the award of the Nobel Prize in Economics to William Vickrey in 1996.

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Linkcomn expects an Earnings after Taxes of 750005 every year. The firm currently has 100% Equity and cost of raining equity is 10% the company can bonow de with an et of 10% What will be the value of the company if the company takes on a debt equal to 60% of its unlevered value? What will be the value of the company the company takes on a duit a to 50% of value? Assume the company's tax rate is 20% (Must show the steps of calculation)

Answers

If the company takes on a debt equal to 60% of its unlevered value, the value of the company will be $1,666,675. If the company takes on a debt equal to 50% of its value, the value of the company will be $2,000,000.

To calculate the value of the company using the Modigliani-Miller (M&M) Proposition I with taxes, we need to consider the following formula:

V_Levered = V_Unlevered + (Tax Rate * Debt)

First, let's calculate the unlevered value of the company. The unlevered value represents the value of the company with no debt:

V_Unlevered = Earnings after Taxes / Cost of Equity

V_Unlevered = $750,000 / 0.10 = $7,500,000

Now, let's calculate the value of the company when it takes on a debt equal to 60% of its unlevered value:

Debt = 60% * $7,500,000 = $4,500,000

V_Levered = $7,500,000 + (0.20 * $4,500,000) = $7,500,000 + $900,000 = $8,400,000

Therefore, the value of the company when it takes on a debt equal to 60% of its unlevered value is $8,400,000.

Next, let's calculate the value of the company when it takes on a debt equal to 50% of its value:

Debt = 50% * $8,400,000 = $4,200,000

V_Levered = $8,400,000 + (0.20 * $4,200,000) = $8,400,000 + $840,000 = $9,240,000

Therefore, the value of the company when it takes on a debt equal to 50% of its value is $9,240,000.

If the company takes on a debt equal to 60% of its unlevered value, the value of the company will be $8,400,000. If the company takes on a debt equal to 50% of its value, the value of the company will be $9,240,000. These calculations are based on the M&M Proposition I with taxes, taking into account the earnings after taxes, cost of equity, and the tax rate.

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The market value of John and Barbara's home is currently $210,000. The mortgage balance is $150,000 at 3.5% with 15 years left. What is their home's value in 12 years if its market value increases at 5% per year?

Answers

The market value of John and Barbara's home is currently $210,000 and the mortgage balance is $150,000 at 3.5% with 15 years left. Then their home's value in 12 years if its market value increases at 5% per year is $1,332,999.34.

To solve the above problem, we need to calculate the current market value of their home that will be used in the formula given below.

The formula for calculating the future value of an annuity: FV = A x [(1 + r)n - 1] / r + PV x (1 + r)

where, FV = Future Value, A = Periodic, Payment

r = Rate per, Period

n = Number of Periods, PV = Present Value

Here, Market value (PV) = $210,000

Annual increase rate (r) = 5%Monthly interest rate (i) = 3.5% / 12 = 0.0029167

Period (n) = 12 x 15 = 180

months periodic payment (A) =PV x r / [1 - (1 + r)-n] = $150,000 x 0.0029167/[1 - (1 + 0.0029167)-180] =$991.70

Approximately FV = 991.70 x [(1 + 0.0029167)180 - 1] / 0.0029167 + $210,000 x (1 + 0.05)12= 991.70 x 3.9102 / 0.0029167 + $373,026.74= $1,332,999.34

Therefore, their home's value in 12 years if its market value increases at 5% per year is $1,332,999.34.

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The process of using every channel available to bring a product to market is called A. exclusive B. specialized C. selective D. intensive distribution.

Answers

The correct answer is D) intensive distribution. Intensive distribution is the process of using every available channel to bring a product to the market.

It aims to make the product widely accessible to consumers by maximizing its distribution across various channels and locations. This approach is commonly used for fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) and products with high demand.

Intensive distribution involves distributing the product through multiple retail outlets, wholesalers, and online platforms to ensure broad market coverage. The goal is to make the product easily accessible to consumers wherever they shop, increasing convenience and the likelihood of purchase.

On the other hand, exclusive distribution involves limiting the number of outlets that sell a product, often for premium or luxury items. Specialized distribution focuses on specific channels or outlets that cater to a particular target market. Selective distribution strikes a balance by selectively choosing a limited number of outlets based on specific criteria.

Therefore, in the context of using every channel available, the correct term is intensive distribution (option D).

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At which tax rate the yield after taxes will be the same for the following bonds Corporate Bond with 10% coupon Municipal Bond with 7% coupon Seleccione una: O 13% O 7% O 10% O 3% O 70% O not enough data to answer O 30%

Answers

The tax rate at which the yield after taxes will be the same for the given Corporate Bond with 10% coupon and Municipal Bond with 7% coupon can be determined using the formula:

Yield after taxes = Yield before taxes × (1 - Tax rate)

We need to find the tax rate at which the yield after taxes will be the same for both the bonds. Let the tax rate be "r".For the Corporate Bond:

Yield after taxes = 10% × (1 - r)

For the Municipal Bond:

Yield after taxes = 7% × (1 - 0) = 7%Equating the two yields after taxes:10% × (1 - r) = 7%Simplifying the equation:1 - r = 0.7r = 0.3The tax rate at which the yield after taxes will be the same for both the bonds is 30%.

Using the given formula;

Yield after taxes = Yield before taxes × (1 - Tax rate)We can find the tax rate at which the yield after taxes will be the same for the given Corporate Bond with 10% coupon and Municipal Bond with 7% coupon.

In general, the tax rate is different for different bonds, and a bond with a higher coupon rate may be more profitable even if the yield after tax is lower. However, for these specific bonds, we have the following calculation:

For the Corporate Bond:

Yield after taxes = 10% × (1 - r)For the Municipal Bond:

Yield after taxes = 7% × (1 - 0) = 7%

Equating the two yields after taxes:10% × (1 - r) = 7%

Simplifying the equation:1 - r = 0.7r = 0.3

The tax rate at which the yield after taxes will be the same for both the bonds is 30%.

Therefore, the answer is 30%.

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AAA Corporation is applying Total Quality Management. Which of the following types of change is most likely to be used in this case? A Evolutionary Change. B) Revolutionary Change. Functional Change.

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In the case of AAA Corporation applying Total Quality Management (TQM), the most likely type of change to be used is Evolutionary Change. TQM is a continuous improvement approach that focuses on making incremental changes and adjustments to processes and systems to enhance quality and customer satisfaction.

It involves ongoing evaluation, feedback, and improvement based on the principles of continuous learning and adaptation. Evolutionary change aligns with the philosophy of TQM, as it emphasizes gradual and continuous improvement rather than radical or revolutionary transformations.

Total Quality Management (TQM) is an approach that emphasizes continuous improvement, customer satisfaction, and involvement of all employees in the quality improvement process. It focuses on making incremental changes and adjustments to processes, systems, and behaviors within an organization to enhance quality and meet or exceed customer expectations.

Evolutionary change, in the context of TQM, refers to a gradual and continuous improvement process. It involves identifying areas for improvement, implementing small changes, monitoring the results, and making further adjustments based on feedback and data analysis. This type of change recognizes that achieving significant improvements in quality and organizational performance takes time and requires the involvement and commitment of all employees.

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T/F: Public sector organizations are not considered to be not-for-profit organizations.
T/F: The product-market exploitation operation describes attempts by the organization to increase the number of markets to increase the product sales.
T/F: Both small businesses and entrepreneurial ventures play an important role in the global economy

Answers

False. Public sector organizations can be not-for-profit organizations. False. The correct term is "market development operation," which describes attempts by the organization to identify and develop new markets for existing products or services. True. Both small businesses and entrepreneurial ventures play a crucial role in creating jobs.

False: Public sector organizations can be considered not-for-profit organizations. Not-for-profit organizations are those that operate for purposes other than generating profit, and public sector organizations, such as government agencies and public institutions, often fall under this category.

False: The product-market exploitation operation refers to strategies aimed at increasing market share or sales volume in existing markets, rather than increasing the number of markets. It involves maximizing the potential of current products in current markets.

True: Both small businesses and entrepreneurial ventures play crucial roles in the global economy. Small businesses contribute to job creation, economic growth, and innovation, while entrepreneurial ventures introduce new ideas, products, and services, driving competition and economic development.

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A customer buys furniture to the value of R4 800on hire purchase.An initial deposit of 8%of the purchase price is required and the balance is paid off by means of nine equalmonthly instalments starting one month after the purchase is made.If interest is charged at8% p.a.simple interest,then the value of the equal monthly payments(to the nearest cent) is R

Answers

The amount of equal monthly payments after charging 8% p.a. simple interest a customer has to pay is R520.11.

Given, Purchase price = R4800

Initial deposit = 8%

Balance (Principal) = Purchase price - Initial deposit

Balance (Principal) = R4800 - (8% of R4800) = R4800 - R384 = R4416

Number of payments = 9 months

                           i.e.,   = 9 ÷ 12 = 0.75 years

Interest rate = 8% per annum

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

where, Principal = R4416, Rate = 8%, Time = 0.75 years

simple Interest = (4416 × 8 × 0.75) ÷ 100 = R264.96

Total amount payable = Principal + Simple Interest =

R4416 + R264.96 = R4680.96

Amount of equal monthly payments = Total amount payable / Number of payments

= 4680.96 ÷ 9= R520.11 (to the nearest cent)

Therefore, the amount of equal monthly payments is R520.11.

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QUESTION 10 Suppose the demand for oil is P=174Q-0.20 There are two oil producers who form a cartel. Producing oil costs $9 per barrel. What is the profit of each cartel memben? 2 I

Answers

The cartel earns a profit of $0.2336 while each producer earns a loss of $0.1168.

The demand for oil is given by:P = 174Q - 0.2 …………………(1)The cost of producing oil per barrel is $9.The marginal cost is the change in total cost per additional unit of output (MC = ΔTC/ΔQ).We get the total cost from the unit cost by multiplying it by the quantity, which is C = 9Q. The marginal cost is thus:MC = ΔC/ΔQ= 9Now the price (P) and marginal cost (MC) are known. A firm maximizes profits by producing at a level of output where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. Marginal revenue is the additional revenue earned by producing one more unit of output, which is the change in total revenue per additional unit of output (MR = ΔTR/ΔQ).From the demand function, we can calculate total revenue, which is:PQ = (174Q - 0.2)Q = 174Q² - 0.2QFor each producer, the total profit is given by:π = TR - TCπ = PQ - Cπ = (174Q² - 0.2Q) - 9Qπ = 174Q² - 9.2QThe profit function is maximized by setting its derivative to zero. Thus, we obtain:dπ/dQ = 348Q - 9.2 = 0Q = 0.02644Thus, each producer should produce 0.02644 barrels of oil in order to maximize profits. The price charged is:P = 174Q - 0.2P = 174(0.02644) - 0.2 = 4.5872The total revenue earned by each producer is:TR = PQTR = 4.5872(0.02644)TR = 0.1212The total cost is:C = 9Q = 9(0.02644) = 0.238The total profit earned by each producer is thus:π = TR - TCπ = 0.1212 - 0.238π = -0.1168The profit for each producer is -$0.1168 or a loss of $0.1168. The cartel earns a total profit of twice the amount for each producer, or $0.2336. The cartel earns a profit of $0.2336 while each producer earns a loss of $0.1168.However, it's important to note that this is only true if both producers agree to the cartel arrangement. If one producer decides to break away and increase production, they would be able to earn a positive profit by charging a slightly lower price, which would lead to the other producer's output being reduced to the point where they would incur a loss.

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Which of the following is most accurate regarding the timing and frequency of risk assessment? Select one: O a. At the start of a project when developing the project management plan O b. At the start of the project followed by at regular intervals throughout the project lifecycle O c. After the risk event has taken place O d. When a risk event is anticipated O e. Should be based on risk triggers

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The most accurate regarding the timing and frequency of risk assessment is B.) at the start of the project followed by at regular intervals throughout the project lifecycle.

This is the best answer as risk management should be conducted in a comprehensive manner throughout the project lifecycle. It should not just be conducted at the start of the project. Instead, it should be continuously conducted and updated at every stage of the project lifecycle.What is risk management?Risk management is the process of identifying, assessing, and controlling risks that threaten an organization's or project's objectives. It is the continuous and systematic application of the management process to recognize, evaluate, and manage risks to optimize the probability of success and reduce negative consequences. The project manager should keep track of risk management progress throughout the project lifecycle to ensure that it is effective and timely.

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When Susan gets to work, she finds that her cube-mate (someone who shares a cubicle) has spent the first hour of work building a house out of post-it notes. Susan's cube-mate is engaging in a____
a. Organizational citizenship behavior b. Counterproductive work behavior c. Waste of time, everyone knows that cards work better than post-it notes d. Low motivation work environment

Answers

Answer: B - Counterproductive Work Behavior

Nordstrom’s is ordering 10,000 parkas. The expected shortage is
500. The fill rate will be
a.
90%
b.
5%
c.
95%
d.
9500

Answers

The fill rate of 95% (c) means that Nordstrom's expects to fulfill 95% of the total order of 10,000 parkas, resulting in a shortage of 500 units.

The fill rate refers to the percentage of the total order that a company is able to fulfill at a given time. In this case, Nordstrom's is ordering 10,000 parkas. The expected shortage is 500 units. To determine the fill rate, we need to calculate what percentage of the order will be fulfilled.

If the fill rate is 90% (a), it means that Nordstrom's will be able to fulfill 90% of the order, resulting in a shortage of 1,000 units (10,000 * 0.1 = 1,000).

If the fill rate is 5% (b), it means that Nordstrom's will only be able to fulfill 5% of the order, resulting in a shortage of 9,500 units (10,000 * 0.95 = 9,500).

If the fill rate is 95% (c), it means that Nordstrom's will be able to fulfill 95% of the order, resulting in a shortage of 500 units (10,000 * 0.05 = 500).

If the fill rate is 9500 (d), it seems to be a typographical error as it is an unusually high value and does not represent a percentage. Therefore, it is not a valid option for the fill rate.

Based on the given options, the correct answer is (c) 95%, which means Nordstrom's expects to fulfill 95% of the 10,000 parkas order, resulting in a shortage of 500 units.

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