Answer:
I would say questioned
Explanation:
Answer:
questioned
Explanation:
Because we get the maximum understanding when we ask and keep asking, to discover answers to what we learn.
Im just curious. What does a person with no eyes experience. They can’t see darkness because they have no eyes or can they?
Which actions can be used to help promote the selection of healthy food choices?
Answer:
Less stock
Explanation:
Produce less unhealthy treats and snacks so that they're harder to get so ppl turn to healthier options.
The FDA defines _ as any perishable food that consists in whole or in part of milk or milk products, eggs, meat,
poultry, fish, shellfish, or other ingredients capable of supporting rapid and progressive growth of infectious or toxigenic
micro-organisms.
Answer:
The FDA defines Potentially Hazardous Food (PHF) as any perishable food that consists in whole or in part of milk or milk products, eggs, meat, poultry, fish, shellfish, or other ingredients capable of supporting rapid and progressive growth of infectious or toxigenic micro-organisms.
Explanation:
Potentially Hazardous Foods are the foods that are perishable like milk and it's products, eggs, meat, poultry, fish, or other items that have ingredients that have a rapid and progressive growth of infectious or toxigenic micro-organisms. These food items are graded by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as potentially hazardous food in accordance with their contents which play a huge role in their longevity and endurance or lasting potential. The easily degradable foods which get spoiled sooner than others are termed under the PHF so as to identify their duration and thus make people aware of how to handle such foods.
You need to use your
to evaluate and control your emotions.
a heart
b body
c mind
Answer: i believe is mind
How many ounces of potato would someone on a 2,000 calorie diet need to eat to get their recommended daily allowance of iron? (round to the nearest whole number) _____________ ounces
What health problems are associated with being overweight and having too fat fat in the blood?
Answer:
High blood pressure, abnormal levels of blood fats, and high blood glucose levels may raise your risk for heart disease. Blood fats, also called blood lipids, include HDL cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and triglycerides. Losing 5 to 10 percent of your weight may lower your risk factors for developing heart disease.
Explanation:
Health is divided into two types -- physical health and mental health Select one: True False
Answer:
true because physical health is your body and mental health is only your mind.
Explanation:
Answer:
False
Explanation:
which of the following identities the responsibilities of parenting?
a.provide for the child’s wants
b. provide for the child’s physical and emotional health
c. provide education television and stylish clothing
d. provide private schooling and extracurricular activities
Answer:
It's B.
Explanation:
Answer:
B. provide for the child’s physical and emotional health
Explanation:
Maintain a positive self-concept
Answer:
i dont get it
Explanation:
Belinda's blood test indicates that she is iron-deficient. All of the behavior patterns her mother reported would also suggest iron deficiency except:
a. She is lazy and does not want to help with household chores.
b. She complains about being too hot.
c. She has lost interest in playing with friends.
d. She is more irritable than usual.
e. She is having difficulty concentrating at school.
Answer:
she complains about being to hot
Explanation:
its goood
Elizabeth is 20 weeks pregnant with her second child. Her blood type is AB negative. Her obstetrician is concerned about the possibility of a reaction between Elizabeth's blood and the baby's blood because of the father's blood type. The obstetrician prescribes RhoGAM for Elizabeth. RhoGAM contains immunoglobulins that prevent the production of certain antibodies. What condition does the obstetrician fear may be a complication with this pregnancy in the event that RhoGAM is not given?
How do psychological tests differ?
Answer:
I could poke you, or I could yell at you or i could question you
Explanation:
these come from 3 different approaches/pov's
1 is more suttle
the other is more aggressive
the last is very informing to you
I'm not a psychologist but at least i can spell
Answer:
Tests and assessments are two separate but related components of a psychological evaluation. Psychologists use both types of tools to help them arrive at a diagnosis and a treatment plan. Testing involves the use of formal tests such as questionnaires or checklists. These are often described as “norm-referenced” tests.
Explanation:
Ordinary people have occasional intrusive thoughts with bizarre, sexual, or aggressive content, but they would not be considered to have obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). What is required for someone to be diagnosed with OCD?
Answer:
See explanation
Explanation:
Intrusive thoughts and irrational fears that are only resolved by performing a ritualistic action
For example, fear of germs leads to excessive hand washing which is the fear and the ritualistic behavior to calm the fear
What’s the key for effective communication?
Answer:
Effective receptive communication is based on good listening skills: Face the message sender and maintain eye contact. Nod, smile, or occasionally make affirmative vocalizations or other responses that tell the sender you're paying attention
Explanation:
Correct me if I am wrong
Vaping is the inhaling of a vapor created by an electronic cigarette or other device.
True of false
Answer:
This statement is correct.
Explanation:
Nicole and Anthony have been together for about six months. Nicole has decided she wants to remain abstinent until she gets married. Anthony has not vowed to stay abstinent, but he supports Nicole’s decision and does not pressure her to have sexual intercourse. Recently though, Anthony has been hinting to Nicole that they should engage in other sexual activities. Nicole is considering this because she would still maintain her virginity. She also believes it might make their relationship stronger. Gina is a friend of Nicole's. What advice should Gina give Nicole? Check all that apply. “You can still contract STDs even if you’re not engaging in sexual intercourse.” “Is this something you’ve discussed with Anthony and are ready to do?” “Anthony won’t respect you if you don’t eventually have sex with him.” “If you think it’s a good idea, go for it.” “Being abstinent means avoiding all sexual activities, not just sex.”
I assume that the answer would be...
"Being abstinent means avoiding all sexual activities, not just sex"
I hope this helps you!
on edge 2020 its
A) “You can still contract STDs even if you’re not engaging in sexual
intercourse.”
B) “Is this something you’ve discussed with Anthony and are ready to do?”
E) “Being abstinent means avoiding all sexual activities, not just sex.”
summarize the four ways that children learn.
⚠️15 points!!⚠️
Using the picture from the previous questions in section A...
(I provided the picture above, sorry for bad quality)
What is this???
A). Lice
B). Bed bug
C). None of the above
If you chose a or b, explain why ☺️
A patient in her mid-twenties saw an ophthalmologist for a routine eye exam. Due to her young age, a glaucoma est was not performed. She later was diagnosed with glaucoma and sued the ophthalmology group, alleging negligence in failing to preform a glaucoma test. The defense argued hat the standard of care was to not administer the test to patients younger than 40 because the instance of glaucoma at younger ages was rare. Which of the following statements do you think best describes the applicable standard of care in this case?
1. The defense should prevail because the reasonable, customary, and prudent course of action followed by practitioners in the same or similar circumstances would be the same.
2. The plaintiff should prevail because all patients should be protected against glaucoma, regardless of age.
The statement that best describes the applicable standard of care, in this case, is 1. The defense should prevail because the reasonable, customary, and prudent course of action followed by practitioners in the same or similar circumstances would be the same.
What is the applicable standard of care?The applicable standard of care is taking any actions reasonably likely to have the opposite effect than a reasonable and prudent person acting in similar circumstances.
The case is of a patient who is diagnosed with glaucoma in after. And when she took the test the glaucoma test was not written for the patient, and now she sued the ophthalmologist.
The defense should reclaim the claim because it is not the doctors' act that she got glaucoma. It is not a mistake of the ophthalmologist.
Thus, the correct option is 1. The defense ought to be successful because doing nothing would not be the reasonable, typical, or sensible course of action used by practitioners in the same or comparable situations.
To learn more about the applicable standard of care, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/28155015
#SPJ2
Andrew is a young boy who loves to climb trees. While attempting to climb his favorite oak tree, Andrew fell and fractured his humerus. The radiologist described Andrew’s injury a transverse fracture that spanned his epiphyseal growth plate. The doctor tells his parents that:_______
Answer:
This type of fracture can be treated with immobilization.
Explanation:
Bone grows as tissue that is added to the physeal disk (growth plate), which is surrounded by the metaphysis at the proximal level and the epiphysis at the distal level. Children with injuries involving the epiphysis, as well as the growth plate, or that compress the growth plate, tend to have a worse prognosis. Epiphysiolysis fractures and epiphyseal fractures are more serious due to the greater possibility of complications: growth arrest, progressive deformity due to asymmetric growth cartilage involvement, or future osteoarthritis due to joint incongruity. The fundamental steps in the treatment of fractures are: reduction, if displaced, and immobilization. The objectives are: pain relief, correct consolidation and avoid possible complications
which of these is associated with binge eating disorder?
Answer:
are there options to chose from?
Explanation:
Answer:
bingeing but not purging
Explanation:
a p e x
Is it safer to use a condom or the pill when having sex?
A 68-year-old man awoke one morning with severe pain in his right shoulder. On turning his head or lifting his shoulder, he experienced extreme discomfort and lancinating (shooting, piercing, darting, or stabbing) pain. The pain was a sharp, burning pain that moved across his shoulder and down into his right arm. Finding a comfortable position lying down was difficult. A cervical MRI study showed no bone abnormalities, whereas a neurologic examination provided evidence of damage to multiple peripheral nerves. He developed weakness of his shoulder muscles and was unable to lift his right arm. Final diagnosis was brachial plexus neuritis [also known as Parsonage-Turner syndrome]. The cause of the condition is unknown, but it may be related to a flu vaccination he received 2 weeks previously. Treatment consisted of pain medication and physical therapy to rehabilitate weakened muscles in his arm and shoulder.
A young man sustains a gunshot wound to the base of his neck. He was shot point blank with a .38 caliber revolver. The entrance wound is above the left clavicle, below the level of the cricoid cartilage, and just lateral to the sternomastoid muscle. The exit wound is just above the spinous process of the right scapula. He has normal breath sounds on both sides, is awake and alert, is talking with a normal tone of voice, is neurologically intact, and is hemodynamically stable. Portable x-ray films of the neck and chest took in the emergency department showed some air in the tissues of the lower neck, but are otherwise non-diagnostic.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Observation for several hours
B. CT scan of the lower neck and upper chest
C. Angiogram, esophagogram, esophagoscopy, and bronchoscopy prior to surgical exploration
D. Immediate surgical exploration of the lower neck through a collar incision
E. Immediate surgical exploration of the upper chest through a median sternotomy
Answer:
C. Angiogram, esophagogram, esophagoscopy, and bronchoscopy prior to surgical exploration
Explanation:
Based on the information being provided in regards to the scenario at hand it can be said that the most appropriate next steps would be to first conduct an angiogram in order to determine if the heart was affected and to what degree. After this procedure, three more procedures need to be conducted in order to determine if any other organs were affected before actually going into surgery. These procedures would be esophagogram, esophagoscopy and bronchoscopy. Therefore the answer to this question would be C.
What do chromosomes do once they are connected during prophase I?
continue to replicate
exchange DNA
form their own nucleus
break away from each other
During prophase I, the homologous chromosomes condense and show because the x shape we all know, pair up to create a tetrad, and exchange genetic material by crossover. During prometaphase I, microtubules attach at the chromosomes' kinetochores and also the nuclear envelope breaks down.
Answer:
exchange dna
Explanation:
the brown color gene is dominant over the blue color gene.
A man with brown eyes, son of a father with blue eyes and a mother with brown eyes, marries a homozygous woman with brown eyes, how likely is it that the couple will have children with blue eyes?
Answer:
5/6
Explanation:
if we are talking percentages here we are talking about a 83 percent chance of brown eyes and 17 percent for blue
there is a very low possibility of a child with blue eyes
Which of the following does HIT stand for
A list of each employee's access to the EHR is an example of
safeguards.
A, administrative
B. privacy
C. technical
D. physical
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Remember, the EHR (Electronic Health record) contains confidential information about patients health data. Today many consider their health records as private and would expect health institutions to protect their privacy.
Therefore, it is very much important to know how many employees have access to this sensitive information in case of any misuse or intrusion.
Answer:
privacy
Explanation:
After training, how long does it typically take for DOMS to set in?
Usually,
between 24 and 48 hours and disappears around the fourth
day
Answer:12-48 hours
Explanatio
Why use needle loop to prepare fungi slide
Answer:
A needle loop is also known as the inoculation loop or smear loop.
It is used to transfer and innoculate microorganisms. Some of the reasons why it is used to prepare fungi slides are:
the base of the needle has a blunted end. This makes for efficient spearing of the fungi samples;The loop is also useful for manipulations It is disposableCheers!
